2006-11-22 07:46:19 · 13 answers · asked by Anonymous in Arts & Humanities ➔ History
Cos he's Greek? and not English at all.
2006-11-22 07:47:49 · answer #1 · answered by lollipoppett2005 6 · 2⤊ 2⤋
Most people seem to be answering about Prince Philip, but I have a suspicion you're actually asking about Philip II of Spain, who married Mary I?
If you are thinking of him, there were basically two problems they had with him: first, he was a Catholic - this didn't trouble everyone, not least because Mary set about re-Catholocising Britain when she came to the throne; but it did upset the Protestants. Second, he was foreign - the English did not like the idea of a foreign king, not least because his heir would also be king of Spain, and therefore England would be subsumed into the Spanish Empire.
Which is why Philip ended up signing an agreement (a 16th century pre-nuptial agreement!) to say that any heirs of his body would waive any claim to the English throne. Only then was he permitted to marry Mary.
2006-11-22 10:03:17 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
I the 50s, the English were allowed to disapprove of foreigners. I think that those peoples' apprehension was over cautious as he turned out to be an excellent Prince Consort.
2006-11-22 07:56:11 · answer #3 · answered by Clive 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
because his family believed in the Nazi cause his sister was married to one the other royals at that time also supported the nazi's but changed their name from Saxe co-burg to Windsor to make them seem British thus ensuring that when Britain won the war they kept their British titles or if Germany won they kept the German titles Edward V111abdicated because he was a friend of Hitler and prominent Nazi's Wallace Simpson was just a cover story
2006-11-22 08:11:58 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
HE IS NOT GREEK.HE HAS BORN IN GREECE BUT HE IS FROM GERMANY.
THE FORMER GREEK KING AND ALL THE ROYAL FAMILY CAME FROM GERMANY AND CALED GLYXBURG.
READ THIS.:
http://www.hri.org/docs/statedep/1995/95-09-26.std.html
2006-11-22 08:00:17 · answer #5 · answered by yiannis the greek 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Probably because he was born on a kitchen table in Corfu. Not posh enough.
Edit: Why the thumbs down? Queen Elizabeth's husband WAS born on a kitchen table in Corfu!
2006-11-22 08:09:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Which one? As some others have said! Phil the Greek, another foreign freeloader, mind you they all are.
2006-11-24 05:52:09 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
.You ask why did.
Do you mean Philip who is consort to QE2
Or Philip who was married to Mary Tudor, if so its cos he was Spanish & a catholic.
2006-11-22 09:37:45 · answer #8 · answered by echo 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
I agree with Marcus. Of course one can never be sure. Many people on this site don't know a 'do' from a 'did'.
2006-11-23 00:04:30 · answer #9 · answered by cymry3jones 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Refere to my previous answer to your previous question.
2006-11-22 08:00:02 · answer #10 · answered by fuck off 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋