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2006-11-22 03:00:23 · 2 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government Politics

2 answers

This is a sweeping generalisation. However Pakistan did not exist as a seperate country until 1947 when the Islamic republic of Pakistan was created by the act of partition (up to then it had been part of India). The day after the creation of Pakistan India was released from colonial rule and became independent. The reason for the partion was primarily due to irreconcilable religious differences (Pakistan is an Islamic state while the rest of India is made up of Sikhs, Hindus, Buddhists and other religious groups). The history of the partition is given here: http://www.english.emory.edu/Bahri/Part.html and gives an insight into the differences between the two. Since then of course disputes over neighbouring Kashmir have only served to exacerbate the problems between India and Pakistan.

PS the earlier point about Israel and Palestine is telling as the act of Partition was groundbreaking in its day (bowing to pressure from one sector of the community to create a seperate state on the grounds of irreconcilable differences) and was later seen as a precedent to be used for similar instances such as ... you've guessed it Israel as a independent Jewish state.

2006-11-23 03:46:24 · answer #1 · answered by Bill T 2 · 0 1

Both countries are in dispute over Kashmir with one saying they own it and the other saying its theirs.
Thousands of troops on both sides have been killed all for nothing and the row is still going on.
Its a bit like Israel saying they own Jerusalem and the Palestinians saying it is theirs.

2006-11-23 11:20:43 · answer #2 · answered by mentor 5 · 0 0

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