I have a friend who wants a divorce and his wife says she will never give him one. I read somewhere that if they live apart from eachother for 18 months then a divorce is given even if she doesnt sighn the papers. Is this true?
2006-11-22 02:30:41 · 2 answers · asked by bigjugs202001 2 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
He just needs to go see a lawyer and file for divorce. She does not have to sign the papers, once the papers are ready, she can be served the papers and the clock starts. If she has not responded to the papers by the deadline, the divorce will happen by default and the judge can grant the divorce according to the papers if the judge agrees with them or can modify them if they feel it is necessary, but she can not stop the divorce. She can make it very ugly, drawn out and costly if she wants to, but she can not stop it by not signing the papers. He just needs to let his lawyer know that she needs to be served the papers and she will probably not sign the papers.
2006-11-22 02:37:11 · answer #1 · answered by Suthern R 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
i don't recognize i've got replied this one till now it rather is not significant regardless of if a definite occasion would not sign or no longer a choose can rule on a divorce this is legally binding and enforceble. that's between the justifications Judges are in contact in divorces is with the help of the disagreements between the events in contact. Judges are the mediators.
2016-10-17 09:31:17 · answer #2 · answered by ridinger 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋