2006-11-22 00:18:55 · 5 answers · asked by MICKEY M 3 in Social Science ➔ Gender Studies
When posting that question or answering on it you have to think about cultural differences between people in different parts of the world.
Here where I live, sex before marriage is normal for man and not forbidden to woman.
If you go further to the East, you will find higher and higher levels of limitations for both sexes.
Again, more to the West, limits are lower.
Than in rural societies they are higher than in urban.
And globally speaking, wherever one is, limitations are higher if one is female.
Man who had lots of women is a Don Juan (and it is three-quarters-compliment).
Woman that had lots of men is sl*t (and that is insult in all cultures).
2006-11-22 19:45:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Judging by the garbage on tv (including the proliferation of birth control ads) and movies these days, I think society wants us to lots and lots of sex.
2006-11-22 11:19:33 · answer #2 · answered by noname 2 · 1⤊ 2⤋
Only with the wrong person. (deceases)
2006-11-22 08:25:56 · answer #3 · answered by golden rider 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why do you ask? Someone has to be really misguided to have it with someone they're not even married to.
2006-11-22 08:21:29 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
No.
2006-11-22 08:56:09 · answer #5 · answered by Nikkers 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋