It was only because white europeans had guns and technology that was only possible because of where they lived.
If you read 'Guns, Germs and Steel by Jared Diamond, it fully explains how Europeans developed weaponry and medicine because of where they lived that enabled them to dominate other cultures.
Regardless of whether it was black people or white people (or any other kind) the group that lived in Europe had an advantage, mainly because of climate, soil fertility and relative ease of transport.
2006-11-22 00:29:34
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answer #1
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answered by Velouria 6
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Indians and other white cultures were enslaved and sometimes indentured (slavery with a time-limit, basically). Most cultures that had a history of enslavement within themselves (such as Africans) were bought. African tribes had a huge slavery system amongst the most powerful tribes. These tribes sold slaves and smaller (often rival) tribes to anyone willing to buy them. That is part of the reason I just don't understand the reverse racism that is so prevalent today - the fate suffered by slaves here was comparable to what went on in Africa. Sometimes better even. The really terrible cases that are highlighted throughout history are considered the norm. There were less abusive situations that are hardly mentioned, too. The problem is that the worst of it is held onto today. I talk to many 'white' people who are not in the least bit racist but I have met many more 'black' people who are extremely racist and just won't let the past go and embrace what life could be today. They are bent on hating 'white' (or any other race). Had they been kept in Africa from the beginning their fates would have been as brutal, if not more, in some cases. Whole tribes were slaughtered at a whim to establish power. Slavery still exists there. People of all colors can have the lives here that they never could in their own countries.
I do agree that no culture could go into Japan, Saudi Arabia, etc. and solicit a slave trade comparable to what happened in Africa but that is mainly because any slave trades already there existed on a smaller scale. Plus those cultures were harder to reach and 'export' people to and from.
2006-11-22 00:43:08
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answer #2
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answered by greyrider 4
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Read the Bible, it was going on for a long long time before whitey got on the scene, the Egyptians ensalved the Hebrews thousands of years ago and they were not the first, slavery has always existed, then within the last few hundred years mostly Arabic peoples caught and sold Africans for fun and profit, and in that time nobody knew anything at all about Japan, where they enslaved their own people. Go do some study and come back in a hundred years, or so.
2006-11-22 00:30:45
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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You should really pick up some books -- some on history, some on cultural relativism. I suppose the reason you are still speculating on a question that has been answered time and again is because you haven't done so (and aren't likely to), so I will help you out.
It's common sense, kid. In North and South America, the possibility of enslaving 'Indians' was explored but proved futile. They knew the land too well and were generally successful in running away and staying out of view. Therefore 'Indian' slavery didn't catch on.
Indentured servitude of Europeans (which is often inaccurately compared to the enslavement of Africans as 'white slavery) was much like slavery but only DURING THE PERIOD OF SERVITUDE - seven years or so. The difference was simple; at the end of the period of servitude the 'employer' was legally bound to provide some form of severance pay (some meager clothing, a broken nag, etc.). The exceptions were those who failed to fulfill the contractual - yes, THEY had contracts -obligation properly (by running away, poorly performing one's duties) and, as such, were enslaved themselves. However, they were by no means the norm.
Africans were chosen based on the contrasting darkness of their skin and on the European presumption of superiority (a fallacy). I mean really - what stands out better on a white sheet of paper than a drop of black paint. It's sad, but it's true.
As to your assertion that Africans at the time had neither government nor organization, you are sorely mistaken. Africa is now a continent of which there are many autonomous countries -much as the U.S. and Mexico are countries of many states. It was not that way during the slave trade; government and organization was the responsibility of the various tribes - government and organization the African way.
'Blacks' have never been pitiful. Exploited, yes, but never pitiful. And as for being able to defend themselves, you'd better ask the British what happened when they ran up against Shaka Zulu. Hint -- the British didn't win that one. Try not to wade into waters that are too deep for you.
2006-11-22 00:51:36
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answer #4
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answered by anita.revolution 2
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For the same reason why many black people in Africa were enslaving each other, long before the first white man ever went to Africa -- because slavery was very much a part of life back then, unfortunately.
Remember too that white people did not, by and large, go into Africa and capture Africans with nets and such.
More often than not, Africans were sold into slavery to white people by ... other Africans.
.
2006-11-22 00:28:13
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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During the times of Slavery, neither Japan nor Saudi Arabia were reached by whites in many nos as to capture & ensalve. African society is fragmented in many many diverse ways to make unity among them a impossible task.
Blacks who were captured & taken on ship did not know the fate that awaited them on western shores.
2006-11-22 00:24:04
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answer #6
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answered by TheSage 3
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I've heard that because the Africans were already heat tolerant from living in an equatorial climate they were best-suited to the American South.
However, I think just as many of the Native Americans got the shaft, but then millions of them died from European disease. What the Europeans did to the Americans has got to rank as one of the largest half-intentional/half-accidental genocides in history, yet you don't hear squat about it in school. Hmmm, now why would that be?
2006-11-22 14:37:38
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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In Greece and Rome and Egypt there were lots of slaves of all nationalities. You could be an Italian slave or a Spanish slave, and if you were Black Egyptian (Nubian) you could even be a black person who owned white slaves.
Slavery gradually died out as people learned to respect human rights more, but lasted longer in the African kingdoms than in most places.
The first slaves in America were mainly people who had already been slaves in Africa who had been sold by their African masters to American masters. It was only later, when there weren't enough slaves to keep prices down, that Europeans started raiding Africa and capturing free Africans to be slaves.
'Slaves black, free people white' is an American thing (though not just the US, the same thing happened in Latin America) and comes mainly out of slavery having disappeared in white Europe and Asia by the 1500s (when American slavery began) but still being about in most of Africa.
American slavery only really picked up steam in the 1600s, and by the 1700s it was already getting controversial. The Americans might have wanted to have white slaves, but they were having trouble enough persuading the rest of the world to let them keep their black ones.
(Try looking at the dates when slavery became illegal in England versus the US).
2006-11-22 00:31:09
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answer #8
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answered by insincere 5
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I read some stuff supposedly from Higher Intelligences. They say the Indians
got it because they ruled Atlantis, and wanted to rule the world too!
Karma got them back!
And Blacks sold their own people to the slave traders. And they're still
selling each other out!
That's what is said.
2006-11-22 00:26:51
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Blacks have a history of slavery within their own tribal cultures.
You could try to enslave others, but it may not work as well and rebellion is always a concern.
Now you could disguise it (Indentured serviture), but it is still a form of slavery
2006-11-22 00:22:54
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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