Those examples are according to dictionary.com. I've found some other examples where they're different from Merriam Webster's. For example, dictionary.com has either as eith-er, but m-w.com has it as ei-ther.
Thanks!
2006-11-21 17:43:11 · 4 answers · asked by Bennett L 1 in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
It is the stress that people in a certain region give certain words. The syllables go with how we naturally say the words.
The O in over is long, for example, so it can stand alone. But in ever, the E is short and so we do not naturally split it into e-ver, but rather ev-er, because it is easier for us to say.
About the either thing, people in different countries say the word differently. Did the two dictionaries have different pronunciations?
Like tomato (to-may-to, or to-mah-to).
2006-11-21 18:20:45 · answer #1 · answered by retzy 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1
2016-05-06 04:12:35 · answer #2 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
you use phonetics For example - sup/plied, bull/e/tin, ya/hoo. Get it?
2006-11-21 17:54:48 · answer #3 · answered by scruff 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
hmm... good point, im not sure.
2006-11-21 17:47:08 · answer #4 · answered by @ |* ! @ n @ ♥ 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋