_yaa someone pllleassee help me !
2006-11-21 12:02:34 · 7 answers · asked by jenisebayy 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
The answer is one chance in 2^5 or 1 in 32.
Notice that the chances are the same as flipping five heads in a row.
2006-11-21 12:05:53 · answer #1 · answered by jharr412 2 · 2⤊ 0⤋
It would be the same as getting 5 tails or 5 heads in a row. Multiply the probability for each toss by the next one until you've finished. 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2 x 1/2, or 1/32.
2006-11-21 20:06:43 · answer #2 · answered by TitoBob 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
1/32
either a tail or head is 1/2 on each toss
each event is independent
to calculate the probablity of n independent events occuring, multiply them
so....1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/32
2006-11-21 20:06:45 · answer #3 · answered by clueless_nerd 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
32 to 1.
2006-11-21 20:05:45 · answer #4 · answered by David H 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
1 in 2^5, 1/32, or 3.125%
T-H 1 in 2, 1/2, or 50%
T-H 1 in 2^2, 1/4, or 25%
H-T 1 in 2^3, 1/8, or 12.5%
H-T 1 in 2^4, 1/16, or 6.25%
H-T 1 in 2^5, 1/32, or 3.125%
2006-11-23 15:08:47 · answer #5 · answered by zginder 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
very likely with a group of people have you ever been to a game of TO UP if not you should try it onetime
2006-11-21 20:12:59 · answer #6 · answered by ismalliex 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
just draw a tree diagram
2006-11-21 20:05:10 · answer #7 · answered by jayR12 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋