2006-11-21 10:43:38 · 10 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
A victimless crime is an act which is considered illegal although all parties involved consent, such as prostitution or the sale of marijuana.
2006-11-21 10:52:52 · update #1
I don't think there are any victimless crimes, by definition. We might ask why particular laws are enacted, because they seemingly don't hurt an individual, group, or society as a whole. But you have to look at the full effect of the action to determine if there is harm to society.
For example, prostitution should probably be legalized and regulated, as in many European countries. However, some aspects, such as working a street corner, cause harm to a neighborhood, and should remain illegal. Requiring them to work only in licensed brothels would be appropriate.
Similar considerations would apply to other 'victimless' crimes.
2006-11-21 10:54:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Victimless crimes should only be legalized if the legislatures want to repeal them.
What might happen, though, is that victimless crimes will become constitutional rights in the hands of the Supreme Liars of the United States. Just look at Lawrence v. Texas, 2003.
2006-11-21 11:02:45 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
There is victims on the sale of marijuana.
Crime is a crime it shouldn't be legalized.
Some idiot addicted to marijuana killed innocent person for drug money.
That innocent person is a man that just got married and his wife was pregnant.
That's an effect of selling marijuana, and using it.
THERE'S NO SUCH THING AS VICTIMLESS CRIMES!!!!!
Because in every crime there will eventually be victims.
2006-11-21 11:14:31 · answer #3 · answered by cruel 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There is no such thing as a victimless crime. Someone is hurt someway and somehow. Whether it's an innocent family member, and innocent bystander, or even the victim themselves.
2006-11-21 10:51:48 · answer #4 · answered by tjjone 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Define a victimless crime.
2006-11-21 10:46:29 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
There's no such thing as a "victimless crime"
2006-11-21 10:46:53 · answer #6 · answered by Athos 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I am not sure what you mean by victimless. I do believe that all non-violent crimes or crimes not committed with lethal weapons should fall under community correction and retribution of loss.
2006-11-21 10:50:48 · answer #7 · answered by Dust in the Wind 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
every crime has victims
2006-11-21 10:52:21 · answer #8 · answered by ? 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
NO.. HENCE CRIME..
2006-11-21 10:56:03 · answer #9 · answered by cork 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no
2006-11-21 10:46:05 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋