I guess it really does not matter because the Europeans came over and took all the Indians land anyway , pretty sad !
2006-11-21 09:25:29
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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I'm not sure if it was the Dutch that started the scalping FIRST. I do know that the Indians copied it . The old story imitation is the sincerest form of a compliment. Therefore they did not scalp first. They just complimented the source.
I've included a couple of places you can search and read below.
http://www.bluecorncomics.com/scalping.htm
PDF] Native America: Did You Know? 1. That Indians did not become U.S. ...File Format: PDF/Adobe Acrobat - View as HTML
That Indians did not become U.S. citizens until June 2, 1924, ... The Dutch were the first to start the art of “scalping” in the United States in the 1600’s ...
www.nde.state.ne.us/NATIVEAMER/images/Did%20you%20know%20Native%20American%20fact%20sheet%20Dec%202004.pdf - Similar pages
ASK the person John where he got his information?
2006-11-21 17:37:30
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answer #2
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answered by LucySD 7
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Indians were first paid by the French to scalp the English. Then the indians just started scalping everyone and white men who joined indian tribes instead of white settlements did the same also.
2006-11-21 17:19:25
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answer #3
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answered by John L 1
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Scalping was a white man idea that the Indians used. It was to for proof of the kill.
2006-11-21 17:50:06
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answer #4
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answered by Chris J 6
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Just to put things into perspective, I'll mention a couple things that nobody ever mentions when talking about this subject:
The plains indians were in fact brutal savages. The plains tribes were raping and murdering each other for centuries before Europeans came here. It wasn't just revenge for having land stolen, because they were doing this to the Europeans that came here, about 100 years before the Europeans started taking the land. Before that, there was plenty of land for everyone, and the Euro's kept to the East coast.
Recent findings have shown that many Indians had smallpox & TB before any Europeans came here.
Notice I'm not saying "white men", because the SPANISH (brown-Europeans) came here before the white-Europeans, and in fact bankrolled the whole deal (remember, the queen of Spain financed Columbus???), yet their descendents (the Hispanics) are treated as if they are indigenous people here, when in fact, their ancestors raped & pilliaged more than anyone else did.
They also had more slaves than any white Europeans did (all those black people in Haiti, carribean, & South America didn't just move there, you know?)
They actuall TRIED to exterminate the Indians, and damn near succedded! Ever met an Aztec or Mayans?
They're all dead!
2006-11-21 17:38:01
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answer #5
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answered by dork 7
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So if a tribe inhabits a village and the area around it for hunting purposes--they get to claim the entire continent? There was plenty---1000s of square miles where the native Americans never set foot. So "we" didn't steal all of there land. And some of which they did live was purchased. Albeit for a pittance. But the point is there was room for everyone.
2006-11-21 17:48:34
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answer #6
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answered by amish-robot 4
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Indians scalped... That was their way. Whites just got in the way of the scalping that was already going on.
What would you have expected them to do? Invite whitey over for tea and crumpits to discuss the difference between mine and yours and ours?
2006-11-21 17:25:38
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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The whites started it as a way to determine whether to pay a bounty on Indians killed.
2006-11-21 17:19:21
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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It's an indian tradition. They were doing it long before we got here.
2006-11-21 17:38:50
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answer #9
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answered by bardstale 4
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WELL I DON'T KNOW WHO GOT SCALPED FIRST BUT I DO KNOW THAT THE INDIANS GOT THEIR BEHINDS KICKED FOR A COUPLE DOZEN YEARS.
2006-11-21 17:21:05
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answer #10
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answered by LOWA DECK DAWG 2
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