That is, could it answer a question before it has been asked? I know that quantum physics includes "negative energy"....
2006-11-21 08:28:54 · 10 answers · asked by Aaron W 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
I'm not sure, but it would definitely kick butt in "Jeopardy".
2006-11-21 14:25:47 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Everything has an average. When the average is raised or lowered, you can't tell because you are in the paradigm. This is the fish not knowing it is wet. We redefine what is negative and positive as the whole adjusts. Here in America we call negative bickering about politics while countries less civilized than us will kill over disagreement because their paradigm of morality that includes all argument is much lower. Here it is hurt feelings, there it is imprisonment and death. Extremely correct and incorrect answers will usually get a hostile reaction because they are outside of the understood area of the paradigm and seem threatening. They are usually called crazy-but they are where all the solutions as well as the bad ideas are. The average person cannot fathom anything outside the paradigm and rationalizes such things as craziness-and is coincidentally "correct" half the time. However strictly speaking there is no such thing as crazy-everything has a logical explanation.
2016-03-29 04:36:27 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What the current theory in quantum computing involves would not lead to such a possibility. Quantum circuits are being devised as a means to decrease size and increase data density but do not operate in a quantum fashion in a macro scale.
2006-11-21 08:40:50 · answer #3 · answered by Deirdre H 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, by the phrasing of the second question only.
Edit: Many people are mistaken about causality (cause and effect). In order to have an effect (a result of an action) you must have a cause (an action), but once that effect exists there is no need for the cause to continue to exist. That the effect exists shows that the cause of it did exist.
Also, the passage of time is relative to the observer. Therefore, what event occurs "first" is dependent on their perception of time as it relates to themselves.
Let's say that a question is asked and the answer to it is provided at a time which appears to you to be prior to its asking. Cause and effect. Continue to suppose that since the answer is had that the question doesn't get asked. But it doesn't need to get asked because it had already been asked. In actuality, what is occurring is not that the question isn't being asked, it's that it isn't being asked again. Just because the event which originated the answer doesn't appear to have ever occurred in one context doesn't mean that it never occurred. Cause and effect still exist.
People don't like to accept this because they see it as diminishing their own importance.
2006-11-21 08:36:26 · answer #4 · answered by marklemoore 6 · 0⤊ 4⤋
It would violate causality. The answer would be no, since it would require the information to be passed with a speed greater than the speed of light. Or rather, the explanation for which the speed of light is unreacahble is that it would violate causality. Or something like that.
2006-11-21 08:42:25 · answer #5 · answered by Victor B 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Not in this universe. We still operate on "cause and effect" around here. So far no one has made a good case for negative time.
2006-11-21 08:33:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no. even in quantum physics. in order for something to be answered it must be asked
2006-11-21 08:32:18 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
I doubt it.
2006-11-21 08:31:59 · answer #8 · answered by motorcitysmadman 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2006-11-21 08:34:45 · answer #9 · answered by Erwin N 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
no
2006-11-21 08:57:39 · answer #10 · answered by arafat 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋