English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

let
a=4000
b=2000
a+b=c where c is the total cost

multiply (a+b) in both sides
(a+b)(a+b)=c(a+b)
aa+ab+ab+bb=ca+cb
aa+ab-ca=cb-ab-bb
aa+ab-ca= -ab-bb+cb
a(a+b-c)=-b(a+b-c)
a=-b
a+b=0
!!!!!!!!!!!

but i thought 4000+2000 was 6000?!?!?!?!?!

can anyone explain this to me???

2006-11-21 01:55:48 · 6 answers · asked by Anubhav~~!! 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

all you guys are really good!!

2006-11-21 02:07:33 · update #1

6 answers

a+b-c=0
Division by a+b-c is division by zero, an "illegal" operation.

I think that the "proof" is saying that the only way to make the process true is if a+b=0. The "proof" stands apart from the assignment of values (a=4000, b=6000).

2006-11-21 02:01:58 · answer #1 · answered by RolloverResistance 5 · 1 0

Since a+b=c, then a+b-c = 0
You therefor divided by zero in the second to the last step
As you know, division by zero is a big fat no-no.
Your conclusion that a+b =0 is therefore wrong.

2006-11-21 02:06:11 · answer #2 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 0 0

easy ;-)

you divide by (a+b-c), whereas you start by saying that a+b=c. So you divide by 0, so the division operation breaks down, so anything after that step becomes meaningless, in this case when you say a=-b

2006-11-21 04:33:29 · answer #3 · answered by AntoineBachmann 5 · 0 0

Ha! a+b-c = 0 so you have zero=zero as for dividing by zero don't even try that.

2006-11-21 02:12:43 · answer #4 · answered by deflagrated 4 · 0 0

a+b-c = 0, and so you divide by zero in the step which gets you to a=-b

you can't divide by zero, so that step invalidates the process

2006-11-21 02:03:07 · answer #5 · answered by metatron 4 · 0 0

To get from

a(a+b-c)=-b(a+b-c) to a = -b, you must divide by (a+b-c), which is equal to zero. This is one reason why dividing by zero is a no-no.

2006-11-21 02:03:28 · answer #6 · answered by cosmo 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers