English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

2006-11-20 16:34:50 · 2 answers · asked by marshall S 1 in Politics & Government Law & Ethics

What was meant was: Does the employee have to pay.

2006-11-20 16:40:34 · update #1

2 answers

The answer is they shouldn't, but they need to do everything in their power to prevent the drive-off.

If they employee did not follow established procedures (i.e. pre-pay only) then they deserve to pay for the gas.

2006-11-20 16:52:42 · answer #1 · answered by Kevin k 7 · 0 0

Only if it was specified in the employment contract initially signed by the employee by the time he/she was hired.

2006-11-20 16:46:45 · answer #2 · answered by OC 7 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers