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Id the deriviative of ( e^ x + e^ -x ) / 2 equal to ( -e^ x - e^ -x ) / 2 and is the second derivative the same as the orig. problem? And what does y' (1) equal?

2006-11-20 10:53:41 · 7 answers · asked by Rosie 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

JV - Hit shift 6 for it to show up

2006-11-20 10:59:46 · update #1

everyone is giving me the same answer, but isn't the derivative of
e^ -x equal to e^-X times -1

2006-11-20 11:12:29 · update #2

7 answers

The first derivative is:

(e^x - e^-x)/2
Only the second thing becomes negative (because it's e^-x). The first one stays the same because it's e^+x.

To find y'(1), just put in 1 for x. You'll get:

(e^1 - e^-1)/2

which simplifies to:

e/2 - 1/(2e)

And you're right, the second derivative is the same as the original problem!

2006-11-20 11:00:39 · answer #1 · answered by Kathryn 1 · 0 0

The derivative of (e^x + e^-x)/2 is equal to (e^x - e^-x)/2 (you got one sign wrong). And yes the second derivative is the same as the original.
y'(1) is the value of the derivative when you have x=1.
So it's equal to (e- (e^-1))/2 which should be equal to about 1,175 (I took e=2,718).

2006-11-20 19:04:54 · answer #2 · answered by Dragonus 2 · 1 0

The first derivative is:
Quotient Rule: (2)(e^x-e^-x)-[(e^x+e^-x)(0)]/2^2
2(e^x-e^-x)/4
(e^x-e^-x)/2
Yes, the second derivative is the same as the original problem.
As for y'(1), just substitute (1) wherever you see (x) in the first derivative. y' is another way to write the first derivative.

2006-11-20 19:11:48 · answer #3 · answered by izzyhearts 1 · 0 0

if y= ( e^ x + e^ -x ) / 2, 1st derivative is:

y' = (e^x - e^-x)/2, so y'(1) = (e^1 - e^-1) / 2 = [e - (1/e)] / 2.

y'' = second derivative = ( e^ x + e^ -x ) / 2 = y, original.

And, y''(1) = y(1).

2006-11-20 19:04:42 · answer #4 · answered by mr green 4 · 0 0

the first derivative is (e^x-e^(-x))/2 and the second is ( e^ x + e^ -x ) / 2 and Y'(1)=((e^2-1)/2e

2006-11-20 18:59:11 · answer #5 · answered by Jeff H 1 · 0 0

let y = (e^ x + e^(-x)) / 2 (= cosh(x))

Then y' = (e^ x - e^(-x)) / 2 (= sinh(x))
and y'' = (e^ x + e^(-x)) / 2 (= cosh(x))

y'(1) = (e^1 - e^(-1)) / 2
= (e² + 1)/(2e)
≈ 1.5431

2006-11-20 19:04:42 · answer #6 · answered by Wal C 6 · 0 0

how do you do that power sign, the one that looks like > but pointing up?

2006-11-20 18:58:10 · answer #7 · answered by JV 3 · 0 0

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