If an advertisement DOES NOT state "one per customer" and/or "one per household" can the store limit one per customer or one per household when you show up to buy the product.
2006-11-20 09:55:03 · 5 answers · asked by csumicro 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
See the response of BigChief above. Just because they are advertising a product doesn't mean they have entered into a binding contract with you. A contract isn't formed until an offer has been made and then accepted. An ad is not an offer, but an invitation to make an offer. Lame, I agree.
2006-11-20 10:51:21 · answer #1 · answered by straightup 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, absolutely. An advertisement is merely an "invitation" for the consumer to make an "offer" to the store. When you go in to buy it, you are making the offer. The stor is rejecting the offer and counteroffering it to you to have at that price, but only one oper household. You can either accept it or reject it.
2006-11-20 18:01:27 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Afraid so, its there store and they can do almost anything they
want. Deceptive advertising runs rampant, anything now-a-day
to get you in the door. Alot of stores still use the bait & switch
to get rid of similar type products with different brand names.
Beaware of phoney rebate offers that 90 days later you will
forget about or ever recieve. Alot of complaints with rebate
offers.
2006-11-20 18:09:04 · answer #3 · answered by Rusty Jones 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. It would only be illegal if the ad had said "no limit on the amount you buy," or something like that wording.
2006-11-20 18:02:31 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes.
2006-11-20 17:59:20 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋