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2006-11-20 01:57:46 · 8 answers · asked by akhtar 1 in Science & Mathematics Physics

8 answers

By realeasing photons that travel at the speed of about 3*10^8meters per second and carry energy that have frequencies which are visible to the human eye (colors). the frequencies are so high and wavelengths soo low that it can only travel in a straight line. when they hit objects they are bounced back with diferent frequencies depending on the atoms capability to absorb light thus the light from the body is scattered in all directions in a straight line and that is why we see things. and that is why black is the absence of light and also when there is no light there is a shadow blackening of the enviroment by the use of light.

2006-11-20 02:24:29 · answer #1 · answered by mich01 3 · 0 0

Light travels in a Straight Line

2006-11-20 23:44:55 · answer #2 · answered by Santhosh S 5 · 0 0

Light is emitted from a source in straight lines and spreads out over a larger and larger area as it travels; the light per unit area diminishes as the square of the distance. When light strikes an object, it is either absorbed or reflected; light reflected from a rough surface is scattered in all directions. Some frequencies are reflected more strongly than others, and this gives objects their characteristic colour. White surfaces scatter light of all wavelengths equally, and black surfaces absorb nearly all light. Image-forming reflection, on the other hand, requires a highly polished surface such as that of a mirror.

2006-11-20 03:16:41 · answer #3 · answered by _PeTaL_D`oR_ 2 · 0 0

We can say that light travels from one point to other.as we know that sun light reaches to earth.the light which is nothing but a electromagnetic wave and has a frequency,wavelength.we define wave length as a distance between two points(nodes or antinodes).since it is a distance and in this way only we can measure the wavelength.and wavelength, fequency, time period are proportional factors.these all are dependent on each of them.
and we can say that light is not travelling from one point to other if we take the explanation of heisenberg theory.

2006-11-20 18:56:03 · answer #4 · answered by praveenplp 2 · 0 0

You can describe it in two ways which are both perfectly valid. It can be treated as an electromagnetic wave which travels through space. It's also perfectly valid to describe it as a zero mass particle called a photon which carries the light energy. Which form you observe depends on how you choose to measure it.

2006-11-20 02:03:26 · answer #5 · answered by Gene 7 · 0 0

Light travels from one point to another in the form of small and discreet energy packets(it's motion is not contineous but discreet.) known as quanta.

2006-11-20 03:00:59 · answer #6 · answered by somenathsengupta 2 · 0 0

light doesn`t travel anywhere,
richard feymann (nobel price) explain this with the feymann integral over paths.
which is: what we see (measure) is the sum over all posible paths, but the light (or particle) doesn`t travel over one, it travel over all at the same time !!! and what we see is a kind of average of this

2006-11-20 05:34:03 · answer #7 · answered by schulmajer 2 · 0 0

there's a diverse regulation in relativity of how you may combine relative velocities - you won't be able to easily upload them. If an someone flies by you with a % V1, and throws a ball ahead with a % V2, the the finest option thanks to claculate the speed of the ball with observe of to you may want to be V = (V1+V2)/(a million + V1V2/c^2). observe, that once V1 and V2 are small, then V1V2/c^2 is virtually 0, and may be skipped over, so, you've the time-honored formula V=V1+V2 if so. yet when one or both one among speeds are severe, then you won't be able to forget concerning the denominator anymore. as an example, if both speeds (or perhaps anybody of them) are "c", then (wonder...) their sum is "c" too. The beam out of your gentle will be transferring because the speed of light with observe of to you, to boot as to the different inertial observer, in spite of which % you're passing that observer with. in case you aspect your gentle backwards, the '+' sings contained in the formula replace to '-' (because the speeds are literally in opposite guidelines): V = (V1-V2)/(a million-V1V2/c^2). you will discover, that, again, as long as any of the speeds is c, the effect is c too.

2016-11-29 07:32:16 · answer #8 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

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