2006-11-18 23:19:06 · 4 answers · asked by robert t 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Investing
A shares have voting rights and B shares don't but the value is the same for both.
2006-11-18 23:35:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The answer depends on the terms set by the issuing corporation. Usually - but not necessarily always - one type of share will be issued with voting rights, and the other will not. In some cases (just as an example) a B share might be the equivalent of 10 A shares in all respects, or merely in some respects. In other words, it depends.
2006-11-19 00:18:13 · answer #2 · answered by jerrold 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jerrold is right you have to look at how the corporation, mutual fund, L.P., etc define their A shares, B shares, and in some cased even C shares and more. In some cases there is really no difference in the valuation at all.
I hope this helps!!!
2006-11-19 00:36:35 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why have you posted this question 4 times in the last 30 minutes???
2006-11-18 23:26:40 · answer #4 · answered by Whoosher 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋