Sorry for delay.
However coming to the point,
As you said the coins are fair. The probability of getting a head at the throw of each coin is 0.5 Also successive trials are indepedent. So the conditions of a bonomial distribution is fulfilled. The probailities of 0 head, 1 head, 2 heads are given by the successive terms in the expansion of the binomial expression,
(1/2 + 1/2)^2 = (1/2)^2 + nC1(1/2)(1/2) + (1/2)^2 ( Intentionally expanded using binomial theorem)
hence probality of getting two heads in a single trial( tossing the coins 1 time) = (1/2)^2= 1/4
Hence the expected no. of two heads in 172 trials= 172*1/4 = 43 ( ans of a )
Similarly the probabil;ity of getting 1 Head (in whatever order) in a single trial= 2C1(1/2)(1/2)= 1/2
Hence the expected no. of one head in 172 trials= 172*1/2 = 86 ( ans of b )
2006-11-18 20:09:08
·
answer #1
·
answered by s0u1 reaver 5
·
3⤊
2⤋
when you throw to coins , you have 4 possiblities
a) first head second head
b) first head, second tail
c) first tail, second head
d) first tail second tail
obtaining two heads only with case a) probability 1/4 . So with 172
, the probability of a is 172/4 = 43
Obtaining a head and a tail is case b) and c) . The probability is 1/2
If you try 172 , you theoretically obtain 172/2 =86
2006-11-19 05:25:24
·
answer #2
·
answered by maussy 7
·
0⤊
2⤋
what a good question for a Sunday morning, just what I need!!
so the coins can fall
head head
tail tail
head tail
tail head
so 50% of the time you have a missmatch and 50% you have a match - and of that match only 50% of those will be head head .. so 25% of the throws should be head head and 25% of 172 is 43
50% of the throws is a mismatch - so 50% of 172 = 86
2006-11-19 04:14:05
·
answer #3
·
answered by Paul 5
·
4⤊
1⤋
All possible combinations are:
HH
TH
HT
TT
It's a quarter chance for each as these are all the possibilities, probability adds up to 1, and there are 4 combinations, likelihood of getting any of them, as there is an equal chance, is therefore 1/4, a quarter.
So for two heads, a quarter of 172 is 43. That's your answer to a).
For a head and a tail in any order, that's 43 chanches for HT and 43 chances for TH, so overall that's 86. That's your answer to b).
2006-11-19 06:59:03
·
answer #4
·
answered by Katri-Mills 4
·
1⤊
2⤋
a) two heads =1/4*172=43 times
b)a head and a tail in any order
=1/2*172=86 times
i hope that this helps
2006-11-19 06:44:45
·
answer #5
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
1⤋
TAKE ANY SMALL FACTOR OF 172 eg- 4
hence if we toss them 4 times,sample space=HH,HT,TH,TT
for (a)P(hh)=1/4=0.25
for (b)P(ht)=2/4=0.50
hence these will remain same for 172 tosses also.
2006-11-19 04:34:42
·
answer #6
·
answered by wizkid!!! 3
·
1⤊
2⤋
it's a statistics problem
a) = 172
b)=172
2006-11-19 06:30:58
·
answer #7
·
answered by alaa_cancer 3
·
0⤊
2⤋
Why dont you try it yourself ?
answer to both is a chnace of 50% for either of them.
i aint the time for it
2006-11-19 04:09:19
·
answer #8
·
answered by **tomtom 5
·
0⤊
5⤋
50/50 chances are
2006-11-19 04:11:09
·
answer #9
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
5⤋
What is TWI?
2006-11-19 04:04:06
·
answer #10
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
3⤋