Are you sure it isn't?
Note that "ph" pronounced as /f/ is actually is a long-recognized representation of the f-sound. Specifically, it is a "digraph" -- or set of two letters used to represent one sound. Other standard digraphs in English are "ch", "sh" and "th".
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Digraph_(orthography)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/H#Value
Of course, in all those cases, the alphabet lacks a consonant to represent the sound (esp. since the loss of the letters called "thorn" and "eth"-- used for the "th" sounds [with the voice -"the"; without the voice "math"]). So why the "ph" when we have "f"?
English borrowed it for Greek words borrowed THROUGH Latin. It was in Latin that certain conventions for representing the Greek sounds was developed. One of these was "ph" for the Greek letter "phi". (Originally, in the Latin borrowing the sound of "ph" was different from Latin "f", which explains why this new convention developed.) By keeping the "historical orthography [=spelling]" in these cases it is still possible to recognize words of Greek origin, and sometimes to tell something more about how the word is pronounced.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/English_words_of_Greek_origin#The_written_form_of_Greek_words_in_English
But WHY did Latin use "pH" for this sound? They got it from the GREEKS !!
See the end of this article:
"H"
"The use (of H) in digraphs (e.g. -sh-, -th-) goes back to the ancient Gk. alphabet, which used it in -ph-, -th-, -kh- until -H- took on the value of a long "e" and the digraphs acquired their own characters. The letter passed into Roman use before this evolution, and thus retained there more of its original Sem. value."
http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?l=h
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As for the use of C (instead of K) -- the 'hard' pronunciation of "c" for words of Latin origin is common and ancient
2006-11-19 23:31:40
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answer #1
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answered by bruhaha 7
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for the same reason "bonehead" isn't spelled phonetically.
words are only spelled phonetically to show how they are pronounced. when you actually USE a word (whether that word is "phonetically" or any other word), you don't spell it phonetically.
notice that NONE of the words in my answer (or your question) are spelled phonetically.
2006-11-19 03:03:36
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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That's the irony of it. Just as "abbreviation" - which describes short cut for words - is a very long word in itself.
2006-11-19 03:10:58
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answer #3
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answered by ? 7
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The same reason why lisp has an "s" in it and the fear of long words is Hippopotomonstrosesquippedaliophobia: so people can ask silly questions about it.
2006-11-19 03:01:20
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answer #4
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answered by Belie 7
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fuhownetically speeking eye doo not no
2006-11-19 02:55:10
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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huh they look the same to me dear!
2006-11-19 02:55:52
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answer #6
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answered by Lilmisssassy 4
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It somewhat is...
2006-11-19 03:17:16
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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If evrithing was spelt fonetikli, nobadi wud no wat I was raiting abaut.
2006-11-19 11:53:26
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answer #8
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answered by Dennis J 4
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