When getting a divorce in Florida will I have to pay for my husband credit card debts equally, even if I'm not a cosigner in his?
2006-11-18 12:38:39 · 13 answers · asked by Malvina Fortuna 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
put it in the divorce decree that he is responsible for his own debts. i divorced my husband in florida, he had many credit cards with his name only, i never knew he had them, if your name is not on them,than u should not be held accountable. i was not held accountable for his debt, they never came after me, if not in your name than i believe they are his problem, and he is responsible not you. just make sure it is in the divorce decree that he be responsible for his own debt.
2006-11-18 12:45:16 · answer #1 · answered by jude 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I'm not sure how it works in FL but in IL they said when I got my divorce that my ex could be made to pay half of ALL bills due to the fact that he benefitted from the things that were charged on the credit card during our marriage. His name was not on any of the credit cards.
2006-11-18 12:43:29 · answer #2 · answered by cookiefactory4 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, his credit is your credit. That is what bites. But if he is willing to pay his debt and you pay yours, there should be no problem. But if he doesn't pay it and he goes bankrupt before you are officially divorced, then that is ruining your credit too. It will haunt you for a long time. I am so sorry!
2006-11-18 12:41:06 · answer #3 · answered by Peek A Boo 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
All possessions even debt incurred for the duration of marriage are split. i might collect up those receipts to tutor it grew to become into his costs for inner maximum products. Itemise those costs for the kinfolk as nicely to tutor your good faith attempt to be honest. Honesty and fairness is a uncommon commodity at the instant, you will possibly provoke the decide. It could no longer injury. there is probable a 50-50 split regulation etched in stone, i'm unsure. it could make you sense extra helpful to renowned you get 0.5 of his retirement.
2016-10-22 08:10:13 · answer #4 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's only possible if your ex husband made purchases based on your marriage.
For example large merchandise for your home. The only way you would have to pay if he submits all the credit card statements that proves what he bought.
2006-11-18 12:50:35 · answer #5 · answered by Gucci S 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
A court can do anything as between the parties but a court cannot let either party out of his/her legal liability to the credit card company.
2006-11-18 12:46:44 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you did not use the credit cards and are not a co-signer then
you can probably leave him with the debt..
2006-11-18 12:51:52 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
if the credit card were obtain during the marriage it is concidered to be a marrital liability and he is resposible for half
2006-11-18 12:41:18 · answer #8 · answered by da 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It all depends on the individual Judge and how he interprets the situation and his opinion on the matter. Good luck!
2006-11-18 12:42:08 · answer #9 · answered by madisonian51 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That doesn't sound right because couldn't you prove that you never used the card for any of your personal purchases?
2006-11-18 12:43:48 · answer #10 · answered by daydreamer 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋