That clear pre-*** is not completely necessary for conception, but it neutralizes the ph and acidity in the urethra so sperm that are ejaculated can live longer.
As far as is he fertile, I doubt it has anything to do with that.
2006-11-17 03:48:26
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Unless the person knows before hand of being sterile, assume that the person can in fact get females pregnant .The presence of clear fluid oozing out of reproductive organ is not always necessary for males to be able to impregnate.
2006-11-17 04:24:06
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The clear liquid that comes out prior to ejaculation is the liquid that cleanses the urine because urine kills sperm. So therefore your chances of "making babies" is lowered if this liquid does not come out. The other explanation is that he has already had an orgasm prior to the current ejaculation.
2006-11-17 03:40:12
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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As far as I know, men can't have babies regardless of what comes out the end :)
2006-11-17 03:38:34
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answer #4
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answered by bizou_bear 3
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Nope, he's still fully loaded for bear. Not every guy leaks preejaculate. Wear a condom!
2006-11-17 03:38:50
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answer #5
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answered by OU812 5
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No, because something might come out and you just might not see it, in other words sperm cells, which are not visible to the naked eye. So be careful and use a condom please.
2006-11-17 04:10:46
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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No,no,no it means that it is going to rain tomorrow.
2006-11-17 03:46:07
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answer #7
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answered by Anonymous
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No
2006-11-17 03:39:53
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answer #8
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answered by Bob 3
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