English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Suppose
x^(n) = a^(m) - b^(m)
Here "n" is any number > 2 & "m" is any number greater then 2.
"n" can be equal to "m" then it is FLT.
when n=/=m
then also there is no natural solution for "x" , "a" & "b" to the above equation.
Can this marvellous truth be proved?

2006-11-16 19:33:45 · 2 answers · asked by rajesh bhowmick 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

2 answers

This would be a special case of the Fermat-Catalan Conjecture.

This conjecture is that there are only a finite number of solutions of x^p + y^q = z^r for 1/p + 1/q + 1/r < 1. Ten solutions are known, but all of them have the three exponents different (except for 1^p + 2^3 = 3^2) and one exponent equal to 2.

Your conjecture would be the special case that there are no solutions with p > 2 and q = r. It is already known that there are no solutions with p = q and r > 2 (Darmon and Merel, 1997).

2006-11-17 00:59:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

I guess no ...

http://www.mymathforum.com

2006-11-17 04:01:20 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers