Suppose
x^(n) = a^(m) - b^(m)
where "m" is any number >2 & n>2.
Then the above equation doesn't hold for natural solutions of "x" , "a" & "b".
Is this marvellous fact provable?
2006-11-16 17:18:43 · 2 answers · asked by rajesh bhowmick 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
It is not known to be a fact. However, it would be a special case of the Fermat-Catalan conjecture about integer solutions of x^p + y^q = z^r, and it has been proved that a similar special case to yours has no solutions.
2006-11-17 01:05:14 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
This is what is called Fermat's Last Theorem...
I don't remember the details, but I know that some Brit named Wiles cracked it in the 90s.
Check out the following link for more info...
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fermat%27s_last_theorem
2006-11-16 17:42:33 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋