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The answer I was given is pie(secx)^2(piex-1). I can't seem to make this work....any ideas?

2006-11-16 15:54:23 · 4 answers · asked by Mountain Lover 2 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

4 answers

y = tan(πx - 1)
let u = πx - 1
now, dy/dx = (dy/du)(du/dx)
d(tan(u)/du = sec^2(u)
du/dx = π, so
dy/dx = πsec^2(u)
dy/dx = πsec^2(πx - 1)

2006-11-16 16:10:57 · answer #1 · answered by Helmut 7 · 0 0

Given the equation y = tan (x* pi - 1). We are to solve for dy / dx. Then by the chain rule for differentiation, we obtain

dy / dx = sec^2(x * pi - 1) * [d(x * pi - 1) / dx ]
         = sec^2(x * pi - 1) * [d(x*pi) /dx - d(1) / dx ]
         = sec^2(x * pi - 1) * [pi - 0 ]
         = sec^2(x * pi - 1) * pi.

Therefore, the derivative of tan (x* pi - 1) is sec^2(x * pi - 1) * pi.

2006-11-16 16:04:17 · answer #2 · answered by rei24 2 · 1 0

y = tan(pi*x-1)
dy/dx = sec^2(pi*x-1) * d/dx(pi*x-1) - chain rule
dy/dx = sec^2(pi*x-1) * pi

the answer you were given is either wrong or I'm not reading it correctly. MY TI-89 comes up with the same answer that I got. Perhaps you wrote the answer down wrong?

2006-11-16 16:07:33 · answer #3 · answered by Jaques S 3 · 0 0

using the chain rule.

d/dx tan(u) = sec^2u * du/dx

u in this case is pi*x - 1

du/dx = pi

2006-11-16 16:07:43 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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