The Term Has Been Around For A Long Long Time. So When Did The Term"Rape "Become Rape? and?

Question

was it considered "rape" when white slaveowners/landowners 'raped' slave women? Or for that matter, when white men 'raped' white women?
(I bet few can answer this question)'m looking for serious answers.

Answer 1

Rape has always meant rape, but the legal definitions of when consent has been given have changed over time. Before 1975 married women could never be raped by their husbands, because they were considered as having consented by marrying. Slaves were considered non-persons, so their consent was a non issue. Even if it were, slaves had no legal standing in court.

Rape has included using or threatening violence to force someone to have sex and even having sex with someone too young for many hundreds of years, as you can see at the site below, detailing the proceedings of the Old Bailey from the 17th century.

Answer 2

You're talking about two different things.

The first is the action that is commonly defined as rape. That action applies regardless of time or race or any other factors.

The second is the crime of rape, and what specific limits are imposed for prosecuting someone of that crime. And yes, that crime has changed definitions, as racial and gender issues change.

So, yes it was the act of rape all along. But it wasn't a crime back then, becuase the crime had exceptions based on race, etc.

Answer 3

It has always been rape. What i think you are asking is when did women get the power to protest it and seek justice. That is different for each society.