English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

.99999999999999999999999999999...
Do you think this number is really 1? Of course it is not, but when you use the "9 trick" (putting a repeating decimal over 9 to express it as a fraction) it will be 9 over 9, which is actually equal to 1. Of course, this number gets so close to 1, but it never truly reaches 1. What do you say?

2006-11-16 11:38:11 · 8 answers · asked by Br 3 in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

8 answers

It is 1, just like 0.3333... *is* exactly 1/3 and 0.6666... *is* exactly 2/3 and 0.9999.... *is* exactly 3/3 = 1.

It's not *close* it just *is*, exactly equivalent.

There is no trick to it... ask any mathematician and they will confirm that 0.9999.... repeating is just another way of representing 1.0.

1/9 = 0.1111...
2/9 = 0.2222...
3/9 = 0.3333... (1/3)
4/9 = 0.4444...
5/9 = 0.5555...
6/9 = 0.6666... (2/3)
7/9 = 0.7777...
8/9 = 0.8888...
9/9 = 0.9999... (1)

or use this proof:

x = 0.9999...
10x = 9.9999...
10x - x = 9.9999... - 0.9999...
9x = 9
x = 1

To say that 0.9999.... doesn't equal 1 because it might eventually end and be different than one is like saying 0.0 repeating might not equal zero.

Check Wikipedia or any of the math forums to see that 0.9999... is confirmed to be 1, despite what our intuitive logic might say otherwise.

2006-11-16 11:40:32 · answer #1 · answered by Puzzling 7 · 1 0

Geez, some of you make this sound like it's an act of faith. It just a geometric series. If you "believe" in the formula, then a/n + a/n^2 + a/n^3 + a/n^4 + .... = a/(n-1). So, 9/10 + 9/100 + 9/1000 + 9/10000 + ... = 9/9 = 1.

2006-11-16 20:00:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Interesting question.

1) No,in general if you repeat .9 ( n times) with n = 1000000000000000 by
example your answer will be very close to 1 but not equal to 1.


Example 2: f(x) = 1/x f(x) = mathematical function

f(1000) = 1/1000 = 0.001

f(1 x 10^6) = 1/(1 x 10^6) = 0.000001

f(1 x 10^20) = 1/(1 x10^20) = 0.0000000000000000
0001

-
-
-

f(1 x 10^ 1000000) = 0. 000...0001
repeat ''0'' 999 999 times ! before 1

but the final answer is very very close of 0 but it's not 0.


2) Yes, in particular for calculus. The reason it is more practical for calculations to put .999999999... if we take limit of certain number with n => infinity and suppose .99999.... (9 repeat infinity
time).So, it' s more practice to take ''1'' for answer to complete
or finish the reasoning.(depends of the problem)

2006-11-16 20:09:25 · answer #3 · answered by frank 7 · 0 0

From the answers, I think the phrase ".9 repeating" is ambiguous.

.9 repeating infinitely is 1, which should be the default understanding when 'infinitely' is not specified.

.9 repeating for n times, where n is any positive integer, is not equal to 1.

2006-11-16 22:40:37 · answer #4 · answered by back2nature 4 · 0 0

.9 repeating is so close to 1 that most mathematicians believe it to be 1. I believe that it is 1 as well.

2006-11-16 19:40:53 · answer #5 · answered by trackstarr59 3 · 0 0

Well it all comes down to where you want to use this number. For things like space travel, you have to be dead accurate, so you'd probably need 0.9999 to 12 decimal places!!

2006-11-16 19:41:46 · answer #6 · answered by thugster17 2 · 0 0

It is close to 1, but it isn't. Of course, making it into a fraction is really estimating it. It should be like 999999999999/10000000000000! LOL ROFLMAO actually that isnt funny at all...

2006-11-16 19:44:13 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

nope it's just .9 bar

2006-11-16 19:44:57 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

fedest.com, questions and answers