We consider two cases. First, suppose that the two sequences converge to the same limit, L. Then ∀ε>0, ∃(δ_x, δ_y)∈N×N : ∀n>δ_x, |x_n-L| < ε and ∀n>δ_y, |y_n-L| < ε. Let δ = max(δ_x, δ_y). Since for all n>δ, n>δ_x and n>δ_y, it follows that for all n>δ, |x_n-L| < ε and |y_n-L| < ε. But since ∀n, either z_n=x_n or z_n=y_n, this means that ∀n>δ, |z_n-L|<ε. And since we can find this δ for all ε>0, it follows that z_n converges to the limit L
Now, suppose that the two sequences converge to different limits. Without loss of generality suppose [n→∞]lim x_n > [n→∞]lim y_n. Then there exists δ such that ∀n>δ, x_n>y_n, and thus ∀n>δ, z_n=x_n. That is, all but a finite prefix of z_n is identical to x_n. Since changing a finite number of terms at the beginning of a series does not affect either convergence or limits, it follows that z_n converges, to the same limit as x_n (if it were the case instead [n→∞]lim y_n > [n→∞]lim x_n, then it would converge to the same limit as y_n).
2006-11-16 11:33:58
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answer #1
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answered by Pascal 7
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arghh, you need a proof? i proved zero once but didn't get much further. They're both convergent. Proving them graphically is my favorite way to prove this though most teachers don't take a liking to it on the final pencil/paper exam. Though i had one who did. Life was good.
Plug in dummy values to prove. cover all those then generalize them. Voila. your answer and proof.
2006-11-16 11:09:54
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answer #2
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answered by fillblanks 2
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