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.why would some like to abolished or modified the 15 amendment

2006-11-16 10:40:52 · 3 answers · asked by jaisil007 1 in Arts & Humanities History

3 answers

Since you posted this in the 'history' section, I assume you are asking why the 15th amendment was opposed when it was first introduced in 1870.

Of course, this and a few other amendments (the 13th and 14th) were forced into the constitution as a consequence of the civil war. The 13th barred slavery and the 14th granted citizenship, but it occurred to some people that even with those amendments, some states could create a set of laws that was essentially slavery to people of colour unless some additional measures were taken. After all, although it's IMPLIED that any citizen should be able to vote by other parts of the constitution, it's not flat-out stated. And it bears mention that those fears were completely justified - but we'll get to that later.

Another major group that did not want blacks to be able to vote was the Democratic party at the time. Keep in mind that back then the Democrats were conservative and the Republicans were liberal (the switch occurred around 1896). Lincoln was a Republican, Republicans had a well-known sympathy toward former slaves, and Democrats had reason to believe that if black people were given the vote they would lose elections like never before.

And they were right. Between 1865 and 1880 more blacks were elected to political offices than at any other time in American history. This, mind you, was even in spite of the efforts of an active Ku Klux Klan!

Those who wanted to exclude others were not finished, however. Laws began to be passed, particularly in the south, under the auspices of assuring that voters were 'qualified'. They were phrased in ways that were race-neutral, yet their effects were rather obviously intended to exclude segments of the population. Some required literacy, some charged a 'poll tax' in order to vote, and some just made it nearly impossible to find the correct polling place. To avoid excluding whites, many laws allowed a person to vote if his grandfather could (the ORIGINAL 'grandfather clause').

It was a hundred years, several congressional laws, and another amendment before all that was stopped. Maybe.

Recently Republicans have passed a number of identification requirements to vote under the auspices of preventing voter fraud. Many have observed the people without ID are not likely to be voting for Republicans anyway. Is this another effort to exclude voters and gain political advantage? Perhaps only time will tell...

2006-11-16 11:22:25 · answer #1 · answered by Doctor Why 7 · 0 0

The 15th Amendment to the Constitution granted African American men the right to vote by declaring that the "right of citizens of the United States to vote shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude." I wasnt aware people were trying to abolish or modify it?

2006-11-16 10:49:31 · answer #2 · answered by Kristin Pregnant with #4 6 · 0 0

Freedman... undemanding as that. Many slaves have been 'freed' earlier slavery become abolished. From adentured, sort people who inherited them, those that ran ect.. there have been some way. some paid money to get out, yet few. maximum freedman went to Canada or the north..aka enormous apple, the place on the time blacks have been nevertheless taken care of poorly yet no the place close to that interior the south. wish it helps

2016-12-30 13:41:51 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0 0

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