probably politely. You can read in the most reliable of history books that man has been able to speak linguistically since the beginning of time. See Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, etc.
2006-11-16 09:28:19
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answer #1
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answered by crunkestbeatisGods 3
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Linguistic diversity is one of the most puzzling and challenging features of humankind. Why are there some six thousand different languages spoken in the world today? Why are some, like Chinese or English, spoken by millions over vast territories, while others are restricted to just a few thousand speakers in a limited area?
The farming/language dispersal hypothesis makes the radical and controversial proposal that the present-day distributions of many of the world's languages and language families can be traced back to the early developments and dispersals of farming from the several nuclear areas where animal and plant domestication emerged.
It is highly subjective to try and quantify just how the dispersal of early farming populations at the Mesolithic/Neolithic transition affected language development.
Although the Roman conquest led to the extinction of the Gaulish language 2,000 years ago, a half dozen rare, surviving Gaulish/Latin bilingual inscriptions have enabled scholars to trace the origins of the Celtic language and many other European languages.
According to the study, Celtic branched in two directions from an Indo-European mother language around 3200 B.C. One version, Gaulish, which is also called Continental Celtic, stayed within the European mainland. A second, British version, referred to as Insular Celtic, moved in a single wave to Britain.
Insular Celtic is probably a hybrid of Continental Celtic and the language of the mesolithic people who occupied Britain before the neolithic migration of the Celts ~4000 BC. Now if the differences in the two Celtic languages could be isolated, some generalized root words of the mesolithic language might be deducted and analyzed. Wouldn't that be cool.. :)
2006-11-16 09:50:30
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answer #2
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answered by DAVID C 6
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If you are referring to the European Mesolithic, they used words just as we do. The Mesolithic followed the last Ice Age and lasted (in Britain at least) from about 10,000BC to about 4000BC.
These people were fully modern humans, exactly like we are now. They built lakeside villages, invented the bow and arrow, had widespread trading networks and buried their dead with often elaborate rituals.
Mesolithic people were just as intelligent and 'human' as us today.
2006-11-17 00:22:15
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answer #3
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answered by Beowulf-Boy 3
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you want us all to say 'Nostratic', hypothetical predecesor of all the indo-european, sumerian, dravidian, african and aleut languages based on similarities observed for common concepts in all these language systems?(lexicography, inflection etc)
I would guess that language goes back further than the Aurignatian, Gravettian or Magdalenian cultures.
It is a widely accepted hypothesis that h. sapiens evolving in Africa spread out in succesive waves, replacing h. neanderthalis in Europe and colonised Australia about 50,000 years ago. This would have required fairly sophisticated organisation,differentiatian of roles within the group etc. Mere naming of things would not have sufficed. Indicators of action and tense etc would be required.'hypothetcal' and insightful behaviour was in evidence. A language would have been necessary to transmit and presrve valuable cultural ideas effectively for the succeeding generations.
What was this language? sorry! dunno!
2006-11-16 12:01:48
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answer #4
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answered by troothskr 4
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the debate of whether neandertals of the mesolithic spoke as we did is as hot as any in the field of paleoanthropology. the debate stems from whether or not the neandertals had a hyoid bone as modern humans do. this bone is what allows us to speak languages.
2006-11-17 01:58:00
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Hmmm....ok first the Dumb man can't speak and the blind man can't see. So let's review ways of communication ♥Speaking (cannot be done because of dumb man) ♥Email, or electronic communication (cannot be done because blind man cannot see) ♥Sign Language (cannot be done because blind man cannot see) ♥Braille (cannot be done bause dumb man doesn't know how or so I assume) The onyl way to communicate is for the Dumb man to send an email, IM message or any other electronic message to someone who is can speak (is not dumb). Then, the dumb man can tell the speaking person to tell the Blind man what happend. In other words, get someone who can talk to pass the message from the dumb man to the blind man. ♥Or they could both learn braille or another form of communication that doesn't require tounge or eyes.
2016-03-17 07:24:11
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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The internet and yahoo questions and answers
2006-11-17 06:06:09
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answer #7
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answered by ste53 3
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Talk radio.
2006-11-16 09:25:55
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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