I had a property with my girlfriend, she left over a year ago. I am paying the bills on my own. How long till i can have her removed from the title deeds. She pays nothing towards the upkeep of the house and has left the area. I am not in contact with her to sign any documents and i want to sell the property as soon as possible as the bills are starting to mount up. As the mortgage was based on a dual income it is now hard to meet on a sole basis.
2006-11-16 02:24:33 · 7 answers · asked by gary a 1 in Business & Finance ➔ Renting & Real Estate
Only two options if you want to keep the place:
1. Best: get gf to sign a deed back to you; even if you have to pay her. If you can't --
2. File a suit for "partition," which is a court ordered sale at auction. She will have to be served with a summons or a notice of service will have to be published. You will ask the court to enter a judgment to re-imburse you for all additional funds you've expended in upkeep, taxes, etc. in excess of your half share. Then the house will in fact be auctioned. You will have a free bid for your half interest and any additional sums awarded to you by the court. Above & beyond that the bid will be split between you & gf. Without knowing the values, the mortgage balance & what special equities you are claiming we cannot tell you whether you'll have to be prepared to bid real $$ to keep the house from an outside bidder. In any event you have to lay out all the costs of a partition action & this can be substantial. It will almost certainly cost you less to find gf & work out a deal for a deed.
Incidentally, don't pay her for a quit-claim deed unless you first do a title/name search on her just to make sure some creditor hasn't gotten a judgment against her that will attach to the property.
2006-11-16 03:08:56 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Deeds do not change themselves. The was to change title from a joint tenancy to a sole ownership is to have one party in title grant title to the other. Ask her to sign a quit claim deed to you and have it filed of record in your county. If she refuses, see a lawyer.
Lest anyone fails to see the complications involved, this sort of problem should be considered before entering into the purchase of property with another person.
2006-11-16 02:32:47 · answer #2 · answered by Suzianne 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. the purely 'proprietor' is the guy listed on the deed/identify. besides the undeniable fact that, if the sources replaced into offered *in the course of the marriage, utilizing martial money* (vs separate money), then a choose can rule that that is a martial asset and hence the numerous different is entitled to their honest percentage of the fairness.
2016-11-29 04:51:16 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You will have to go through a solicitor, until you ahve done this and legally had the deeds changed, then she is joint owner, no matter she hasn't paid anything, she will also ahve to sign the deeds over, and remember, she could force you to sell and get her money back, of force you to pay her to buy her out. You can't sell without her WRITTEN permission and without her either signing it over to you. YOU NEED LEGAL ADVICE ASAP.
2006-11-16 02:33:58 · answer #4 · answered by mike-from-spain 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You are screwed.....you'll have to have her sign a quick claim to remove her form the deed....otherwise 1/2 the property is hers regardless....it doesn't matter who is paying the bills.
2006-11-16 02:33:33 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Go see a property lawyer immediately YOU COULD BE PAYING AND SHE COULD JUST RETURN MOVE BACK IN As she still and ALWAYS will own half the property
2006-11-16 02:37:31 · answer #6 · answered by beaugeste 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The two of you own it. She cannot sell it without your signature, and you cannot sell it without hers.
Don't try to find someone to pretend to be her... you'll end up in prison.
2006-11-16 02:39:48 · answer #7 · answered by teran_realtor 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋