READ 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 "Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanderers nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God." See gays WILL NOT GO TO HEAVEN. Wait, lets read further... Corinthians 6:11 "And that is what some of you were. But you were washed, you were sanctified, you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and by the Spirit of our God." Why do people tend to stop reading? It really helps if you read something in context!
2006-11-15 15:52:05 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
It also says "homosexual offenders" and not "homosexuals" if that means anything.
2006-11-15 15:59:45 · update #1
The bible does not say that.
FROM DIGNITYUSA.ORG
What was the point of the Bible texts if not to condemn homosexuality?
It is not easy to summarize briefly the body of research on homosexuality in the Bible. But these are the interpretations that some scholars are proposing:
•The story of Sodom in Genesis 19 is about offense against the sacred duty of hospitality. That is how Ezekiel 16:48-49 and Wisdom 9:13-14 interpret this text. The attempted male rape only heightens the atrocity of this offense.
•Leviticus 18:22 does forbid male-male sex as an "abomination." But the word simply means an impurity or a religious taboo — like eating pork. As in the case of Catholics who used to be forbidden under pain of mortal sin to eat meat on Friday, the offense was not in the act itself but in the betrayal of one's religion. The ancient Jews were to avoid practices common among the unclean Gentiles.
•Romans 1:27 mentions men having relations with men. But the terms used to describe them are "dishonorable" and "shameless." These refer deliberately to social disapproval, not to ethical condemnation. Moreover, according to Paul's usage, different from the prevalent Stoic philosophy of the day, para physin ("unnatural") would best be translated "atypical" or "beyond the ordinary." So it bears no reference to natural law. And it can imply no ethical condemnation because in Romans 11:24 God is said to act para physin. Paul sees gay sex as an impurity (see Rm. 1:24), just like uncircumcision or eating forbidden foods. He mentions it to make the main point of his letter, that purity requirements of the Jewish Law are not relevant in Christ Jesus. See L. William Countryman, Dirt, Greed, and Sex.
•1 Corinthians 6:9-10 and 1 Timothy 1:8-10 list arsenokoitai among those who will be excluded from the Reign of God. This obscure term has been translated "homosexuals" but its exact meaning is debated. It certainly does not include women but only some kind of male sexual offenders. If it does refer to men having sex with men — which is dubious — it must be interpreted in light of the abuse and licentiousness commonly associated with male-male sex in the Roman Empire. See Robin Scroggs, The New Testament and Homosexuality.
•Finally, Genesis 1-3 shows Adam and Eve created for mutual companionship and procreation. These accounts use the most standard of human relationships to teach a religious lesson. The point is the love and wisdom of God, who made all things good and wills us no evil. Nothing suggests the biblical authors intended a lesson on sexual orientation.
2006-11-15 15:59:58 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 6⤊ 2⤋
Actually I believe that you made need to read a little more. Look closely at 2 things. First look at who this letter was written to. 1 Corinthians 1:2 "To the church of God in Corinth, to those SANCTIFIED in Christ Jesus and called to be holy, together with all those everywhere who call on the name of our Lord Jesus Christ - their Lord and ours". This letter is to those in Corinth that are sanctified and those who "call on the Lord". Secondly, look again at the scripture you quoted Corinthians 6:11 It says "And that is what some of you WERE." This is saying that they were no longer gay, prostitutes,etc. So yes, they were not only saved but were sanctified and were going to heaven.
2006-11-16 00:12:13 · answer #2 · answered by GPHS 3 · 4⤊ 0⤋
Yes, offenders is a key word. I never once saw a bible verse implying that being gay is sinful. Committing gay acts is repeatedly accused in the bible, but some reason ppl seam to sometimes think that having gay sex is worse than any other form of adultery. Everyone sins. I don't see why the gays appear to be some churches' favorite sinners to persecute. And I definitely don't see how sending ppl with homosexual desires to camps in order to brainwash them with straight porn or whatever is for the sake of God. God gave us our sexual desires. Its not our right to change tht. The hardest part is the fact tht gays can't get married, and a life of chastity is a hard one to live, but they can keep strong and stay with God. God loves gays and all sinners. We all have the chance to get back up and redeem ourselves and we can all be washed clean and ho to heaven. I believe that ppl who do good go to heaven not just those who believe in God (cuz I'm catholic)
hope tht helped
2014-08-31 23:06:13 · answer #3 · answered by step 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The bible has been doctored to suit whoever wanted power at that time.
All people go to the spirit world under the rules of natural justice.
Drunks, theives and gay folk will be there.
Murderers I'm not sure, maybe they get a chance to make amends. Child killers and sex offenders I would hope enter eternal darkness.
We shall see, hopefully.
2006-11-16 00:35:13 · answer #4 · answered by SunGod 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, the real Bible does not say that. The word 'homosexual' is only about 100 years old, the Biblical texts predate that by many centuries. You are reading a faulty translation.
Get yourself a real translation, or even better, learn to read it in the origional languages.
Of course, the Bible DOES say that the rich can't go to heaven. (MT 19) Maybe we should pass state constitutional amendments against the rich?
2006-11-16 00:13:06 · answer #5 · answered by sudonym x 6 · 3⤊ 1⤋
That is exactly the verse I was thinking of before I clicked on your question. I've never understood the anger against homosexuals that is exhibited by so many Christians. As I see it, EVERYONE has a 'favorite' sin that they have trouble controlling. Just because we have been spared that particular one is no reason to gloat!
2006-11-15 23:58:00 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
actually it NEVER says the word homosexual at all thats a bad translation, there was no word for gay back then, thats the problem with language one word and you've destroyed the entire intent of the passage.
2006-11-16 01:56:45 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, that's not correct. Man has twisted the meaning of what was written because they are ignorant and they cannot fathom the FACT that men fall in love with men and women fall in love with women by nature, and NOT everyone pairs up for the purpose of creating children.
2006-11-16 00:26:37 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Yes it does help to read in context. But unfortunately for many gay people the context here applies to people who repent of their sins and are " washed clean" and Justified by Jesus through repentance ( which means turning away from ones sin). not those who choose to continue their sin. Jesus said " go and sin no more" when he forgave people, not " go and sin some more"
2006-11-15 23:58:53 · answer #9 · answered by georgeewert 1 · 1⤊ 3⤋
if it does say so in the bible as mentioned then if we continue doing so we will never go to heaven, if we've done it in the past we shud stop now as we knw about it now...
2006-11-16 00:16:21 · answer #10 · answered by genre s 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋