Well, that would be the tradition. It is quite remarkable that the Duke didn't do that. But then, the period after World War I was a time of social change, and he probably thought the country was ready to make some changes in its expectations of the royal family. He was very wrong about that, however.
2006-11-15 06:23:58
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answer #1
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answered by lottyjoy 6
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The government of the time would not allow HRH King Edward VIII to marry a twice divorced woman. By the way, her name is spelled Wallis, not Wallace. Your question alludes to the idea that the heir to the throne would or only should have married another member of another royal family. While this was certainly desirable, there weren't too many surviving monarchies after the first world war. That expectation was relaxed somewhat and so the only "hard" requirement was that any prospective consort not be Catholic. Of course, the moral temperature certainly flavoured the interpretation of that hard rule and that included not allowing anyone divorced to even be presented at court, let alone marry into the royal family. Wallis Simpson was well into obtaining her second divorce by the time she and Edward VIII were an item so her exclusion from the royal family was absolute.
The British monarchy at the time was seen as ruling by divine providence and so had to be above all reproach. Edward VIII insisted that his private life and his role as king be separate but the people would not allow that. Edward did not want to have to sneak around with Wallis and did not feel obligated to keep their relationship a secret.
Heirs to the throne marry suitable partners for the purposes of providing another heir. Love has little to do with things (witness HRH Prince Charles and Diana, Princess of Wales) although there have been exceptions throughout history. Both HRH Prince Charles and his grandfather, HRH King George VI both married the women they loved, although Charles married the woman he truly loves later in life.
There is evidence that Edward VIII was sterile, due to the effects of having had the mumps when he was 14. Wallis was reported to have said that Edward was not "heir conditioned" although there are some reports that he actually fathered an illegitimate child.
Edward (known as David Prince of Wales before he acceded the throne when his father, HRH King George V, died) was never that keen on becoming king in the first place. Mostly, he just wanted to lapse into a charmed life of abject dissipation oblivious to the cost to the crown, which he saw as both a farce and as a source of unending money.
Edward was not very well educated, either. Any success he experienced in school was due mostly to his privileged position as Prince of Wales.
He tended to make completely inappropriate remarks based on virtually no knowledge, such as the idea that both Mussolini and Hitler weren't harmful to the peace and stability in Europe. The British royal family is supposed to be above and away from making any kind of political statement of any kind, yet Edward's famous "...something must be done..." (about the situation of the miners in Wales) remark was clearly designed to spur the government to do something. You can argue whether it was Edward's using his public appeal and familiarity to do the right thing or some vain attempt to appear useful but the fact is that he overstepped his boundaries - yet another embarrassment to the royal family.
So, what would it have been like? Well, if Edward VIII had retained the British throne, it is likely that Wallis would have disappeared since she had seriously considered getting back with her second husband (Ernest Simpson) as she was finding the public pressure and wholesale hatred from the British public too much to handle.
In the end - love prevailed and they enjoyed a longlasting marriage until the duke's death in 1972.
Finally, for those who say that both Wallis Simpson and HRH The Duchess of Cornwall (Camilla) are both hideously ugly and any other unsavoury comments to that effect - please remember that the men who married them love them dearly and would certainly not deign to make nasty and unkind remarks about those you yourself love. Sooo, let's just ease up a bit, okay?
hope that helps
2006-11-16 15:47:24
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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Sorry to say this but I really have no idea why these two British royals (Charles and Duke of Windsor) could involve themselves with such ugly (both personalities and look) females.
I heard that both Camilla and Wallace were "dating" a lot of men. But come on, if it's only sex, there are just so many young celebrities would do it for them! What is it exactly that these royals can't buy? They could have ended up with Hollywood celebrities - at least they look better!
2006-11-15 23:14:48
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I think he could have done better than Simpson, she's ugly,revolting(speach) and no manners.
he could have taken any Royal princess of the time.
The princess Maria of greece would have been a great catch.
2006-11-15 16:18:40
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Probably...Prince Charles was diddling around with Camilla when he was still married to Di.
2006-11-15 14:13:53
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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He would have tried but she Simpson, would not stand for it !!
She was the boss lady!
2006-11-15 15:31:21
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answer #6
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answered by blatt 4
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He probadly would have. He was very in love with her.
2006-11-15 16:08:24
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answer #7
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answered by Sunshine Suzy 5
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