If X x X homeomorphic to Y xY, is it necesarily true that X homeomorphic to Y?

Question

X,Y, topological spaces

Answer 1

Ok, so the relative co-efficient of x is 1, so the unrelative co-hedrent homeomorphic must obviously be 2 to the power of Y-as Y is homeomorphic to X's relative undescribed co-efficient.
Understand my friend. I hope I helped.

Answer 2

xy = x + y xy = x + y (subtract x from each and each and every aspect) xy - x = y (ingredient the left hand aspect) x(y - a million) = y (divide the area in parenthesis, x(y-a million) is a unmarried time period) x = y / (y-a million) The area human beings look to have hassle with is the factoring. only imagine about it, in case you distribute x(y - a million) you eventually end up with xy - x, a similar project. In a nutshell, that is uncomplicated factoring, a required means for extra stepped ahead math. the different area human beings look to have hassle with is dividing x(y-a million) through (y-a million), they imagine it is 2 words because there's a minus signal. Your instructor replaced into incorrect even as he/she suggested "plus and minus separate diverse words", a time period is any style higher through the different style. So, sure, y-a million is two separate words, yet x and (y-a million) are one time period, in math there would nicely be "words interior words", it would nicely be complicated. wish that facilitates.

Answer 3

yes. yes it is. go onto www.mathematicsisthekey.com
(mathematics is the key.)

Answer 4

no

Answer 5

no.