pi^2/6 question?

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Can some one send me a link to a proof or do it themselfs for why the sumation as n approaches infinity of the equation 1/n^2 is eqaul to Pi^2/6

Thanx

2006-11-14 14:07:20 · 2 answers · asked by The Dude 3 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

2 answers

There is a proof contained in my link, using the Fourier series.

2006-11-14 14:11:47 · answer #1 · answered by DavidK93 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋

I think the proof on the wikipedia is pretty nice.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Basel_problem

2006-11-14 14:26:26 · answer #2 · answered by Pascal 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋