y-intercept of f(x)=ln(x)?

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y-intercept of f(x)=ln(x)?

2006-11-14 13:48:35 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics

5 answers

the y-intercept is the point at which x=0.
But when x=0, ln(x) is undefined because as x approaches 0, ln(x) approaches -infinity. So there is no y-intercept, the appropriate answer would be 'undefined'.

2006-11-14 13:56:04 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋

y=1

2006-11-14 13:56:19 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 3⤋

As x -> 0+ , y -> -â

2006-11-14 13:57:49 · answer #3 · answered by bayou64 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋

ln ln(x) will never become 0, there is no y-intercept.

2006-11-14 15:24:28 · answer #4 · answered by Sherman81 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋

y = lnx
y = ln0
y = 1

2006-11-14 13:53:21 · answer #5 · answered by deerdanceofdoom 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋