2006-11-14 10:10:30 · 5 answers · asked by Lucia 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
No, I do not...
Perhaps if they were 3 seperate violent crimes I would agree...
No drug violations would count...
2006-11-14 10:19:05 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes. You can't stipulate what crimes you like it for. Normal upstanding citizens don't have to worry about a three strikes law. Crooks with two strikes should have gotten the message of, "Hey if I so much as get caught drunk in public, I am gone for a long time." There has to be some accountability for repeat offenders. Plus only certain crimes are strikable offenses. You would be suprised how hard it is to get a strike.
2006-11-14 10:17:21 · answer #2 · answered by zillenium_00 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The punishment should fit the crime, its not right to give someone 20 plus years for stealing something that costs under $3. This case happened in california over a man who stole a piece of pizza...
2006-11-14 10:18:59 · answer #3 · answered by trigunmarksman 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Every case should be looked at individually . There are no scenarios that fit every situation
2006-11-14 10:17:13 · answer #4 · answered by Az Rastaman 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, but only for crimes using a gun or other weapon or dealing drugs. Otherwise I dont.
2006-11-14 10:13:35 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋