I was having a discussion with someone not too long ago, and they told me that back in medieval days, there was no such thing as childhood innocence; that children were not deemed too young to learn about the realities of life, meaning that they could be told anything without the truth being sugarcoated, and that the idea of "the innocence of the child" is something that was created by the media and was just recently adopted ( by recently I mean within the last hundred years or so). Can anyone comment on this? Thoughtful answers only, please. Thanks.
2006-11-14
09:57:47
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3 answers
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asked by
fabulous diva
2
in
Social Science
➔ Psychology