2006-11-13 23:42:09 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
yes, plus infinit
2006-11-13 23:46:06 · answer #1 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
As x aproaches + or - infinity f(x) approaches + infinity even faster. Is that a limit?
When x=0 f(x)=1 and is >1 for any other value, is that a limit? I don't know, I'll have a look...
http://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/Calculus/Limits
says yes as far as I can see. It has limits all over the place.
2006-11-14 08:29:26 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends. If xis less than one and it tends to -infinity the expression will be convergent and will have a limit. If x is greater than 1 the expression will be divergent.
2006-11-14 07:52:32 · answer #3 · answered by openpsychy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
seeing that x^2+1 is always more than x, it implies that increasing x will only increase f(x), so the limit would be infinity
2006-11-14 07:50:53 · answer #4 · answered by Neil 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it does.........
lower limit is 1........(minima)
no maximum value.....
[
f(x)=x^2+1
differentiating.............
2x=f'(x).....eqn no [1]
equating to zero
we get x=0
diff eqn [1] again....
f''(x)=2
as it is greater than 0,
f(x) has a minimum value at x=0.
f(0)=1..
hope tat's helpful
2006-11-14 11:00:32 · answer #5 · answered by sriraam h 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it approaches infinity..according to calculus laws
if f(x)=x^2=1
f'(x)=2x
therefore the increase rate is towards infinity
2006-11-14 08:09:23 · answer #6 · answered by tata bear 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeap, I think so
2006-11-14 08:21:33 · answer #7 · answered by Eric F 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
YES
2006-11-14 08:11:41 · answer #8 · answered by Vaibhav cool 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋