In Rousseau, the minority is always incorrect and must be enlightened by the majority, what examples are there where the majority has been misdirected, misinformed, etc, that disprove his theory. I have considered Tocqueville's argument that if a man possessing absolute power can misuse that power, than why can't a majority, however specific examples, or building upon what Tocqueville said would help. I'm wringing for a History of Policical Thought class where I have a C becasue I used the United States and the Bible as sources to disprove Aristotle, so as much help as you could give me would be an incredible help.
2006-11-13
17:31:55
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3 answers
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asked by
Brian M
1
in
Arts & Humanities
➔ Philosophy
I'm pretty sure, becasue in my class someone asked the question, Are you sure that the minority is being called incorrect, I think it's more that their not enlightened, and my prof whos a genius, was like, no, he's calling them incorrect
2006-11-14
02:35:27 ·
update #1