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5 answers

dear u are integrating a derivative. so the answer is
e^(arctan x) 0 through 1
= e^(π/4) - e^0
= e^(π/4) - 1

2006-11-13 19:59:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If I am reading this right, you are taking the integral of the derivative...so in this case just evaluate e^arctan x at 0 and 1.

2006-11-13 16:57:23 · answer #2 · answered by munkmunk17 2 · 0 0

put in the calculator. I truthfully have Ti-86, so press 2d and hit calc container, then you definately finally end up fnInt (4x+5,x,4,7)=eighty one. I advise you utilize graphing calculator because of the fact i'm taking calc 127 now!

2016-10-22 01:28:13 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

f(x)=(1/144(x^6))-(7/120x^5)
-(1/24x^4)
+(1/6x^3)+(1/2x^2)+x+C

1=0-0-0+0+0+0+c and c=1

As such :

f(x)=(1/144(x^6))-(7/120x^5)
-(1/24x^4)+(1/6x^3)
+(1/2x^2)+x+1

2006-11-13 17:09:05 · answer #4 · answered by Zidane 3 · 0 0

good luck !

2006-11-13 16:49:37 · answer #5 · answered by Armon 2 · 0 2

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