dear u are integrating a derivative. so the answer is
e^(arctan x) 0 through 1
= e^(π/4) - e^0
= e^(π/4) - 1
2006-11-13 19:59:31
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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If I am reading this right, you are taking the integral of the derivative...so in this case just evaluate e^arctan x at 0 and 1.
2006-11-13 16:57:23
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answer #2
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answered by munkmunk17 2
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put in the calculator. I truthfully have Ti-86, so press 2d and hit calc container, then you definately finally end up fnInt (4x+5,x,4,7)=eighty one. I advise you utilize graphing calculator because of the fact i'm taking calc 127 now!
2016-10-22 01:28:13
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answer #3
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answered by ? 4
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f(x)=(1/144(x^6))-(7/120x^5)
-(1/24x^4)
+(1/6x^3)+(1/2x^2)+x+C
1=0-0-0+0+0+0+c and c=1
As such :
f(x)=(1/144(x^6))-(7/120x^5)
-(1/24x^4)+(1/6x^3)
+(1/2x^2)+x+1
2006-11-13 17:09:05
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answer #4
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answered by Zidane 3
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good luck !
2006-11-13 16:49:37
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answer #5
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answered by Armon 2
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