2006-11-13 15:11:17 · 4 answers · asked by poena69 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
can someone show the calculations involved? thanks!
2006-11-13 15:29:05 · update #1
Yes. In fact you could float a 40,000 kg ship in a few kg of water.
The point is to make sure that the displaced water (i.e. the water that is not there because the hull is taking up that space) would weigh 40,000 kg. Presumably a ship would have been designed in such a way that this is true because it is intended to float.
So all you need is a tank that is shaped exactly like the ship's hull with maybe a cm in every direction, and just enough water to fill that small space up to the water line. The actual amount of water present is irrelevant - it's the water that's not there that matters.
2006-11-13 15:31:03 · answer #1 · answered by Lem 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Sure, with the right materials. Bouyancy is based upon density of the objects involved--okay loosely based there ARE more factors. But, basically, whatever is less dense than water will float. You may be thinking, but steel is more dense than water. But, overall, how dense is the ship as a whole compared to the water it's on is the key.
2006-11-13 23:30:55 · answer #2 · answered by quntmphys238 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. Simply stated, the ship will float when it displaces an equal weight of water.
2006-11-13 23:34:02 · answer #3 · answered by LeAnne 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
yes, barely
2006-11-13 23:19:06 · answer #4 · answered by Ms.BusyBody 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋