I have been trying to find the answer to this question but it seems ambiguous everywhere. For an act to legally be 'sexual contact' what has to happen? Does there have to be penetration? Does there have to be contact with a sexual part? Or what? Can it be sexual contact to give a foot rub? Is there someone with experience of UK law in this area that can help. Thank you.
2006-11-13 12:41:47 · 9 answers · asked by cutejon83 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Simply touching for indecent assault and penile penetration of a body orifice for rape or attempted rape.
2006-11-13 12:48:06 · answer #1 · answered by Doethineb 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is any touching which could be regarded as sexual by the 'reasonable man'. The reasonable man is a person who would ALWAYS consider the act to be sexual. There does not need to be contact with sexual parts (althout sexual parts will almost always be sexual).
If it is not inherently sexual, you should consider if it 'might be' sexual, and then look at the actions of the person doing the touching, if it would be sexual to the person doing the touching then it will be sexual contact. (See R v. H 2005). Thus, if the reasonable man would consider a foot rub to be sexual: it is sexual. If the reasonable man does not consider it sexual: consider 'may' it be sexual, if it 'may' be sexual, was it sexual to the toucher? If so, it is sexual contact.
This is the English law in accordance with the Sexual Offences Act 2003
--bruverhoodofman
2006-11-14 00:11:40 · answer #2 · answered by bruverhoodofman 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Okay in the U.S. if you grab someones *** and they tell someone like their boss, its sexual harassment.
In order for someone to be raped, there has to be actual penetration.
A foot rub isn't considered sexual contact, but it is foreplay leading up to what could become sexual contact.
2006-11-13 12:45:39 · answer #3 · answered by ¡Free Love! 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I would say there has to be contact of some sort involving the sexual organs, but penetration is not necessary for an act to qualify as such. That would be my guess.
2006-11-13 12:51:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Here in the US sexual contact only requires contact between the genitalia of one person and any part of another.
2006-11-13 12:49:37 · answer #5 · answered by Kevin Arther Cleveland 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
see sexual offences act 2003, any touching which may be sexual with any part of the body, as far as i can remember.
2006-11-13 23:25:01 · answer #6 · answered by logicalawyer 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In Colorado, it's classed as any contact or inappropriate viewing or touching of intimate parts (breasts, buttocks, genitalia).
2006-11-13 12:52:34 · answer #7 · answered by Riley 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
See if you can get Bill Clinton to answer this question - a Congressional Committee couldn't.
2006-11-13 12:46:54 · answer #8 · answered by LeAnne 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
in the u.s., i think it constitutes as penetration.
2006-11-13 12:43:13 · answer #9 · answered by mighty_power7 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋