And how did they separate, these "rights" from rights like the right to breathe?
2006-11-13 07:51:35 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Politics
I don't think the "bill of rights" was written directly by the founding fathers, but rather the states, was it not?
2006-11-13 08:00:56 · update #1
I guess they thought people would figure out how to breathe on their own.
Too bad they didn't think to put the right to breathe in there.
2006-11-13 08:03:48 · answer #1 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Our founding fathers instituted the Bill of Rights based on biblical knowledge. Our Constitution and Bill of Rights are living things. Our forefathers knew that things would change and allowed for room to do that. Freedom is a right to all regardless of what Thaylen said. The rights set forth are basics. The Amendments insure that the government cannot take them away. If the government is no longer for the people then we the people have a right to overthrow it and start over.
2006-11-13 16:28:33 · answer #2 · answered by Michael K 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Our founding fathers believed in laws that do not impinge on basic freedoms. To think otherwise is to not realize that the Bill of Rights was created to make sure that the laws created would still leave us free. Lawlessness was not in any part of the works of Jefferson, Washington, Adams...none of the founding fathers.
They based them on rights that had been removed already, the ones that ticked them off.
2006-11-13 15:58:33 · answer #3 · answered by RJ 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Our Bill Of Rights was vbased upon the Ten Commandments, The Bible, the Magna Carta (France), and other models of law from other countries and centuries. It was an experiment that has lasted an incredibly long time.
2006-11-13 15:53:48 · answer #4 · answered by The Mystic One 4 · 3⤊ 0⤋
The same rights they had before the British enforce the laws to their society
2006-11-13 15:59:18 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
They refused to submit to the throne of England. So they instituted new rights that they did not have as royal subjects.
2006-11-13 16:04:31 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
All of those documents were self serving and biased and did not include everyone. The words were meaningless to non anglos/caucasians. It took years before they began to be enforced in general for "all men".
2006-11-13 15:59:20 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Our founding Fathers believed in freedom, a lack of laws. We now are governed by laws that cover every aspect of living.. this is NOT freedom!
2006-11-13 15:54:43 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
Common sense, perhaps?
2006-11-13 15:53:40 · answer #9 · answered by .... . .-.. .-.. --- 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋