I just need to know some things about it; they can be random, but I would prefer to know how James I ties in with it and even some things about the Shakespear theatre itself. Thank-you in advance!!! :-)
2006-11-13 02:48:37 · 3 answers · asked by Jahzarra 2 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Theater & Acting
http://www.sparknotes.com/shakespeare
try that.
2006-11-13 20:03:12 · answer #1 · answered by Veritesirum 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it is written for his patron, James the I. James the I was interested in witchcraft related things (not in a supportive way), therefor also the three witches and the whole theme of the prophecies in it.
Theatre at Shakespeare´s time was a bit like TV today. People went to the theatre to be amused - from all classes, the rich and the poor. Therefor all the plays had to have something more meaningful for higher class spectators, but also very straightforwardly comical things for the lower class spectators. That can be seen in all of Shakespeare´s plays. Also plays were written to please the patrons, patron is the person who supported the theatre. One had to have lots of money and social influence to be a patron.
2006-11-13 11:15:07 · answer #2 · answered by littlecatinmist 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Some believe Macbeth was written in honor of James I (previously James VI of Scotland). The reference in the play to the family line of Banquo supports this since James was supposed to be a descendant of Banquo. But the play is also a sort of jab at the royalty since it deals with the murder of a king and the usurping of the throne by the murderer. At the time James was trying to enact some law of divine right that would keep his descendants on the throne.
2006-11-13 11:02:59 · answer #3 · answered by audairymaid 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋