When running a linear regression between Degree of Urbanization and the Ranking of a country on the Human Development Index the result is that there is a "__________?????" relationship (R-squared = 0.51). This means that 49% of the variance of Human Development Index Ranking is not explained by the variance in the Degree of Urbanization. Meaning that being highly urbanized doesn’t necessary relate to or mean that a country will Rank higher on the Human Development Index.
Can someone please verify my logic behind my statistical claim and identify the meaning of R²=0.51? I want to fill in that blank.
2006-11-12
17:55:25
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1 answers
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asked by
Chizzo n
1
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Mathematics