2006-11-12 11:47:42 · 11 answers · asked by icecube2008 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Physics
Except for objects in orbit, the ONLY way you can have constant speed is with zero net force. If there is a non-zero net force, acceleration is happening. And since acceleration is change in velocity over change in time, speed MUST change.
2006-11-12 11:54:43 · answer #1 · answered by Spaghetti Cat 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
An unbalanced force is required only to accelerate an object and start it in motion. After the object is moving, a net force is required only to overcome friction and other forces which tend to slow it down. Therefore if an object were already moving at a constant speed in a completely frictionless environment no net force would be required to keep it moving. Having said that, a completely frictionless environment is impossible but the closest we can come is outer space. We now have a unmanned spacecraft that has left our solar system some time ago and the only force applied to it (other than for a few mid-course corrections) was the rocket propulsion needed to get it out of the earth's atmosphere.
2006-11-12 15:19:38 · answer #2 · answered by JimWV 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you have zero net force, then you MUST have constant speed. That's Newton's second law.
F = m a
If the force is zero, then the acceleration (a) must be zero also, assuming a non-zero mass. If the acceleration is zero, the mass in question must be moving in a straight line at constant speed, i.e. with its momentum not changing.
This never seems to happen in real life because in a volume of air, anything that moves experiences a force due to friction with air, which I'm guessing is why the previous answers seem to think the opposite of what I'm saying.
So, yes, you can have constant speed with zero net force, you in fact must have constant speed with zero net force.
2006-11-12 11:56:37 · answer #3 · answered by dm_cork 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
That's the whole idea. If your net force wasn't 0, then the object would be accelerating. When the net force is 0, the object is traveling at a constant velocity.
2006-11-12 12:16:31 · answer #4 · answered by trackstarr59 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
it would look that because the acceleration is 0 the web rigidity will be 0 too. although in case of without delay hill you may't ignore with regard to the acceleration as a results of gravity. the motor vehicle is shifting upwards hostile to and subsequently is overcoming the rigidity of acceleration as a results of gravity. subsequently i imagine information superhighway rigidity does not be 0. If the motor vehicle replaced into going without delay on a similar p.c. on a flat floor then the web rigidity will be 0. On a curved hill, to boot to gravity there is also centripetal rigidity which acts on the motor vehicle contained in the course perpendicular to the line. So the web rigidity isn't 0.
2016-11-23 18:15:20 · answer #5 · answered by cave 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
no bcuz if theres no force upon it it cant be moving only if it was on a frictionless surface but even then the object wouldnt be moving at a constant speed
2006-11-12 11:50:36 · answer #6 · answered by *certified* 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
Only if that speed is zero
2006-11-12 11:51:15 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Yes, if there is zero friction and resistance...
I have no idea what i just said.
2006-11-12 11:49:11 · answer #8 · answered by Habester 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
What dm_cork said. I can't believe to the extent people is willing to invent **** to get virtual points...
2006-11-12 12:22:26 · answer #9 · answered by cactuar2k 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, providing that acceleration and deceleration are equal.
2006-11-12 11:56:24 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋