English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

7 answers

Take 65.32 and multiply it by .15:
65.32*.15=9.798

Now, take that amount and subtract it by 65.32:
65.32-9.798=55.522=$55.52

I agree with 7thAssasin on that, too. I tried the second method and it came out the same way.

2006-11-12 11:40:31 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 5 1

Make a proportion: x/65.32 times 15/100

65.32 times 15 = 979.80

979.8/100 = 9.80

$65.32 - $9.80 = $55.52 was the cost of the meal

2006-11-12 19:41:26 · answer #2 · answered by da_7thassasin 3 · 2 1

Let the actual bill without tip equals 100%
bill including tip equals 115%
let Y represent cost of meal without tip.
100% = Y
115%=65.32
cross multiply
65.32x100=115Y
6532=115Y
divide both sides by 115
Y=56.8
therefore the cost of meal without tip is 56.8

2006-11-12 19:46:03 · answer #3 · answered by Phy A 5 · 0 2

Take $65.32 and divide it by 1.15 = $56.80

To check, multiply 56.80 by .15 and you get 8.52, add 56.80 and you get 65.32.

2006-11-12 19:43:10 · answer #4 · answered by Chea 2 · 0 2

Divide 65.32 by 1.15 and you get $56.80

2006-11-12 19:42:00 · answer #5 · answered by MollyMAM 6 · 0 2

Hi Tracey.

Let X equal the cost of the meal. Then 0.15X equals the tip.

Then the total bill X + 0.15X = 65.32

Therefore,

1.15x = 65.32

Dividing both sides by 1.15 yields:

X = 56.80

Best wishes and good luck.

2006-11-12 19:41:51 · answer #6 · answered by Doctor J 7 · 0 2

let cost=x
x*1.15=65.32
x=65.32/1.15=56.80

2006-11-12 20:32:30 · answer #7 · answered by yupchagee 7 · 1 1

fedest.com, questions and answers