Did sandra get the same portion of each text correct?
2006-11-12 10:45:16 · 15 answers · asked by Dave 1 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
To do this you can set up proportions.
16/40
and
64/180
you can simplify both or you can use a calculator to do the division to see if they are the same
If you simplify:
16/40 goes to 8/20 which goes to 4/10 which then goes to 2/5
64/180 goes to 16/45 and that is the furthest it goes
Since they are different, she did not get the same portion correct on both tests.
If you divide:
16/40=0.4 which also means that she got 40% correct
64/180=0.35555556 which means that she got about 36% right.
They are different and she did worse on the second test.
2006-11-12 10:52:17 · answer #1 · answered by sg 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No:
16/40=40%
64/180=36%
2006-11-12 11:10:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Does 16/40 = 64/180 ?
It does if 16*180= 40*64
16*180=2880
40*64 =2560
Ince tese values are not equal the ratios are not the same.
2006-11-12 10:54:52 · answer #3 · answered by ironduke8159 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The correct answer is no. Sandra scored a 40% on the first test and then she received a 35% on the second test. To see how I came up with those answers, you take 16(correct answers) divide by 40(total possible) and you come up with 0.4 which translates to 40%. The same rule applies for the second test.
2006-11-12 10:51:10 · answer #4 · answered by shy_violet247 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No.
On the first test, she scored 16/40=2/5=40%.
On the second test, she scored 64/180=16/45=35.6%
If she had scored 64 out of 160, then the proportions would be the same.
2006-11-12 10:47:36 · answer #5 · answered by kroxldyphivc 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
16 out of 40 = 40%
64 out of 180 = 35.5555...%
so NO
2006-11-12 10:48:59 · answer #6 · answered by MollyMAM 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
no
16/40 = 40%
64/180 = 36%
2006-11-12 10:46:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
nope. All you have to do is equalize the two.
16 over 40 equals 64 over 180.
then you reduce. You'll get two different numbers.
2006-11-12 10:55:35 · answer #8 · answered by Dark_Scientist 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No.
When you divide 180 by 40, you get 4.5 but when you multiply 16 by 4.5, you get 72 instead of 64.
2006-11-12 10:46:42 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
No
100/40=2.5 2.5*16=40
180/100=0.555555555555555555555555555555 and so on
0.555555555555555555555555555555*64= 35.55555555 and so on
Therefore she doesn't get the same answers
2006-11-12 10:49:54 · answer #10 · answered by STAN 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋