Does anyone know this answer? Obviously as slaves I don't imagine they would have...so when? I've tried looking at British timelines but cannot find anything relating to this. Any help much appreciated.
Thanks
Claire x
2006-11-12 03:13:36 · 19 answers · asked by Claire-upon-Tyne 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Other - Cultures & Groups
Black people were slaves in UK. They came over with the importation of cofee etc. And worked to build cities up like Birmingham and Liverpool....any more sensible answers please.
2006-11-12 04:34:08 · update #1
Try having a look at this site. Although it doesn't specifically mention 'black people' I think you can read between the lines and deduct who could or couldn't vote. I mean, it states that up until a certain time, only landowners could vote, well I think it is pretty safe to say that not many landowners were black in the 19th century. And later on in the time line it states that all men were equal, it was just women who weren't.
Good luck with your research!
2006-11-12 05:11:15 · answer #1 · answered by Number O 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
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2016-05-02 12:02:45 · answer #2 · answered by karisa 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
got this to help you out:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Black_suffrage#British_Empire_and_United_Kingdom
which implies that 1918 was the year most blacks got full voting rights, though it could be said that even today, prohibiting people in jail to vote discriminately disallows some minorities from getting a true representation of the populace.
Black people in America weren t so lucky, not getting the vote until 1965... and it wasn t until 1981 that all commonwealth citizens got the legal right to vote.
2015-02-25 20:38:04 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Sorry Claire I jut had to interject to some of the answers. It seems a lot of people on here do not know their history. Blacks and Asians have been here in the UK since 1555. People do not forget they were part of the British commonwealth. It may have not been as it was with slavery in America but they were here nevertheless.
2006-11-12 07:02:55 · answer #4 · answered by eboni 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
interesting quezzie.
Bear in mind that it's not THAT long since we gave women the right to vote, regardless of their skin colour.
The franchise rests on citizensip of the UK - there's a diffence between being a "citizen" or a "subject", but that'd be a completely seperate novel.
Britain outlawed slavery long before I was born, and I'm an old fart already.
2006-11-12 03:21:13 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
There used to be property qualifications, which acted against the poor of whatever colour, and of course women did not gain the vote until after WWI.
2006-11-12 03:23:40 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The question has already been answered but I have to chime in and say can people please stop writing 50's, 60's, 70's. The apostrophe has absolutely no use there. Sixties is a word .....as a number it is 60s... not 60's.
2013-11-25 09:54:09 · answer #7 · answered by Ron 1 · 2⤊ 1⤋
there are still alot that are not allowed as they are in jail and dont pay theircouncil tax hence they dont get a vote !! also for all the above that replied to this the reason you can not find any thing on the internet is because there were no blacks in the UK when woman did not get a vote ... remember we did not have slaves in the UK they only come here in the 50`s and 60`s
2006-11-12 03:22:59 · answer #8 · answered by andy d 1 · 0⤊ 7⤋
It depends on the class and religion of the "black person".Roman Catholics and the working class were not allowed to vote until the late 1800s and 1918 respectively.Blacks were not singled out for special treatment. http://www.nationalarchives.gov.uk/pathways/citizenship/struggle_democracy/getting_vote.htm
2016-10-19 23:00:43 · answer #9 · answered by Louise 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't mean to sound racist, but I don't think Black people would have got the vote before women. I just tried searching also and i can't find out.
2006-11-12 03:23:58 · answer #10 · answered by kayleigh e 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋