did he go back to woman or continue w/ men or both?
2006-11-12 01:15:47 · 13 answers · asked by Qmarc Q 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, and Transgender
The moment you have sex with the same sex you become bisexual.
Doesn't mater if you are giving or recieving, if you have had same sexual relations you are on the Kinsey scale as a bisexual level 2.
If you fantasize about same sexual relations you are a bisexual on the kinsey scale as a level 1 if you never think about it then you are like 32 % of the population and you are a Kinsey 0. There are 6 levels on the kinsey scale. 7 if you count Kinsey 0.
2006-11-12 01:29:49 · answer #1 · answered by ♂ Randy W. ♂ 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I've had sex with men who SAID they were straight, but that's not the same thing. I suppose someone could try it once and find out it wasn't for them, and thus confirm they were straight (I did it once with a girl, and it made me even more sure I'm gay), but if they enjoy it or do it again, then they're either gay or bisexual and just don't want to admit it.
Some men are genuinely bisexual, and can go through phases of preferring one or the other, or just be looking for the right person. I've met all sorts - some are just more willing to experiment than others.
2006-11-12 02:29:17 · answer #2 · answered by JBoy Wonder 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
See this is a tough question. I seem to only be having sex with straight men. I dont know how I do it but it seems like I attract straight men that just want a little something here and a little something there. I mean they will do stuff with me but then go and date a girl. It makes me really upset because I tend to fall for these guys. So I mean they are most likely bisexual or they do stuff with me because that is trully how they want to be but are just so insecure about coming out of the closet they have to cover it up with women. That is my honest opinion.
2006-11-12 04:39:21 · answer #3 · answered by brandenbaby 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I have performed oral sex on several straight men,they enjoyed it and continued living with their wives like they normally had
2006-11-13 05:18:21 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
That's like asking if you've ever been watched by a blind guy.
If he's having sex with men he isn't straight.
2006-11-12 01:55:02 · answer #5 · answered by ? 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋
there is no such thing as a man having sex with a straight man. the "straight" man is a closest bisexual at least.
2006-11-12 01:52:01 · answer #6 · answered by cammie 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
It depends on how much he enjoys it. If he really enjoys it he might have to rethink what he enjoys. Hard to know what you like unless you try.
2006-11-12 02:28:25 · answer #7 · answered by David Y 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
if he had sex witha a gay man he wasn't straight.... what a silly question.
2006-11-12 07:15:46 · answer #8 · answered by georgeewert 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
*asks Ted Haggard*
Sorry, he's busy at his electro-therepy appointment. Trying to correct his "problem."
2006-11-12 01:22:10 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
if a gay man has sex with a straight man that makes the straight man gay. nuff said
2006-11-12 01:21:44 · answer #10 · answered by Mr Rogers best friend 2 · 0⤊ 5⤋