2006-11-11 12:26:24 · 5 answers · asked by Thyk L 2 in Politics & Government ➔ Elections
I don't know, but its always the 1st Tuesday AFTER the 1ST Monday of the month. weird huh?
2006-11-11 12:31:28 · answer #1 · answered by grapelady911 5 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It is because the farmers were done harvesting their crops by then. They had the free time. The reason it is the first Tuesday after the first Monday is that back then, it was necessary to travel sometimes up to a day to get to the polling places. Many did not travel on Sunday as it was the Sabbath. So if they left on Monday, they arrived on Tuesday and voted.
The reason it is the first Tuesday AFTER the first Monday is to ensure that it never landed on 11/1 which is All Saints Day, a religious Holiday.
2006-11-11 21:52:12 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
It is spelled out in the US Constitution. Election day is to be on the first Tuesday that follows the first Monday in November in even number years.
2006-11-11 20:30:42 · answer #3 · answered by Anthony M 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
I think it has something to do with November being the month of Scorpio, secretive, lustful and greedy for power. Maybe we ought to back it up a month and let our elections be ruled by fair and balanced Libra.
2006-11-11 20:39:10 · answer #4 · answered by Lleh 6 · 0⤊ 3⤋
first free month after harvest. the time between harvest and holiday.
2006-11-11 20:29:06 · answer #5 · answered by deeperthinker1006 2 · 2⤊ 1⤋